The rate of change is

A. -4
B. -1
C. 1
D. 4

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

30% of 20 is 6

Answer:

1.2p

Step-by-step explanation:

p=1p

p+0.2p is equal to 1p+0.2p which equals 1.2p

Answer:

p + 0.2p  =  1p + 0.2p  = 1.2p

Step-by-step explanation:

i just did this

Answer:

m is less than or equal to -4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one;

given

price= $295.

Discount

10% of 295

=10/100*295

=0.1*295

=29.5

new price= 295-29.5=

=$265.5

Tax

5% of 295

=5/100*295

=0.05*295

=14.75

tax=$14.75

Total price= discount sales+tax

=265.5+14.75

=$280.25

Answer:

i think the answer would be 90 cents for each brownie

Step-by-step explanation:

This can be solved as a system of 2 linear equations.

x = price of a brownie

y = price of a cookie

Since $5.70 bought 3 brownies and 5 cookies, our first equation is:

3x + 5y = 5.70

Since $4.50 bought 1 brownie and 6 cookies, our second equation is:

x + 6y = 4.50

So just solve the following system for x and y:

3x + 5y = 5.7

x + 6y = 4.5

Get x = 4.5 - 6y from the bottom equation and substitute for x in the top equation:

3(4.5 - 6y) + 5y = 5.7

Solve for y:

13.5 - 18y + 5y = 5.7

-13y = -7.8

y = 7.8/13 = 0.6 = price of cookie = $0.60

Now substitute this value of y into either equation and get x.  From the bottom equation,

x + 6(0.60) = 4.50

Solve for x:

x = 0.9 = price of brownie = $0.90

Answer:

3.3851375012865377216884767093646, rounded to 2 sig figs, it would be 3.4 inches.

Answer:

3.3851375012865377216884767093646

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:6,760,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

The information represents a Side, Angle, Side triangle

Answer:

SAS !

Step-by-step explanation:

it means Side, Angle & Side triangle and it does show that :)

Answer:

im trying to figure out the same thing

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer a ) 25%

Answer b ) 8.33%

The following formula can be used to determine the likelihood of both winning and owing $100 or more:

a. ) Chance of winning at least $100:

On the first wheel, there is a 2/6 = 1/3 chance of landing in a sector that equates to $100 or more.

On the second wheel, there is a 3/4 chance of landing on a multiplier other than -2.

The odds of both happening are (1/3) * (3/4) = 1/4 or 0.25.

The likelihood of earning $100 or more is thus 0.25, or 25%.

b. ) Likelihood of having at least $100 in debt:

The odds of landing on a sector with a value on the first wheel that is less than or equal to -$50 are 2/6 = 1/3.

A landing on a -2 multiplier on the second wheel has a 1/4 chance of happening.

1/12, or 0.08333, is the likelihood that both occurrences will occur (1/3) * (1/4).

Thus, the likelihood of owing $100 or more is 0.08333, or around 8.33%.

Therefore the final answer is 25% and 8.33%.

To know more about probability visit : https://brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ1

Answer:

1) $38.40 2) $255. 3) $5.80 4) $3.12

Step-by-step explanation:

So you have to multiply the years by the amount of money you have. Then you multiply that by the percent and divide by 100. (For the last one: because its a month you have to make it a fraction so it was 8/12)

Answer:

90-54w

i think this is the answer.

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

A triangle with a side of five is only a perfect right triangle when it's in a 5,12,13 ratio.

Furthermore, to check, 5^2 is 25 and 3^2 is 9. 25+9 is 34, which doesn't not have a square root of 6.

4 x 7 = 28

6 x 7 = 42

42 is the answer UvU

Answer:

76 jelly beans total

Step-by-step explanation

4 x 8 = 28

6 x 8 = 48

28 + 48 = 76

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

because there are 2 x'S

Answer:

hiiii lol. so ganfNFnnq6mq6n1j

Answer:

about $20 because $98.25/5=$19.65

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

There is only one line that crosses the origin. Because there is only one line, there is an infinite amount of solutions.

Answer:

72 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.75 or 3/4 miles hiked in 1/6 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

2 hours = 120 minutes

1/6 x 60 = 10 minutes

9 / 120 = 0.075 miles per minute

10 x 0.075 = 0.75

Answer:

Mag, real num, complex num, vector

Step-by-step explanation:

Absolute values measures magnitude of a real number, complex number, or vector. All numbers in the absolute value become positive :)

Plz mark brainliest

Answer:

absolute value measure of the magnitude of a real number complex number or vector

Answer:

[tex]4.23*8=33.84[/tex]

Graeme will make $33.84 after four hours of work.

Answer:

awnser one is 7 and question 2 is -10

Step-by-step explanation:

−12−2−−55=?  question one

In the first fraction, the negative numerator and negative denominator cancel each other.

Since the the second fraction is negative and you are subtracting, remove the negative sign and switch the operation to addition.

The equivalent equation is

122+55=?

The fractions have unlike denominators. First, find the Least Common Denominator and rewrite the fractions with the common denominator.

LCD(12/2, 5/5) = 10

Multiply both the numerator and denominator of each fraction by the number that makes its denominator equal the LCD. This is basically multiplying each fraction by 1.

(122×55)+(55×22)=?

Complete the multiplication and the equation becomes

6010+1010=?

The two fractions now have like denominators so you can subtract the numerators.

Then:

60+1010=7010

Since 70 divided by 10 equals 7 then,

7010=7

Therefore:

−12−2−−55=7    

Question 2

−81+6−3=?

In the second fraction, move the negative sign from the denominator to the numerator and the value remains the same.

The equivalent equation is

−81+−63=?

The fractions have unlike denominators. First, find the Least Common Denominator and rewrite the fractions with the common denominator.

LCD(-8/1, -6/3) = 3

Multiply both the numerator and denominator of each fraction by the number that makes its denominator equal the LCD. This is basically multiplying each fraction by 1.

(−81×33)+(−63×11)=?

Complete the multiplication and the equation becomes

−243+−63=?

The two fractions now have like denominators so you can add the numerators.

Then:

−24+−63=−303

Since -30 divided by 3 equals -10 then,

−303=−10

Therefore:

−81+6−3=−10

Solution by Formulas

Apply the fractions formula for addition, to

−81+6−3

and solve

(−8×−3)+(6×1)1×−3

=24+6−3

=30−3

=−10

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to start by looking for two coordinates and decide which ones you'll use.

Then you want to find the difference between the two y coordinates also known as the rise.

Then you'll want to find the difference between the two x coordinates also known as the run.

After that you'll want to divide the difference of the two y coordinates with the difference of the x.

Hopefully this helps, much love.

Chart given to best illustrate.

[tex]8-4/4-2=4/2=2[/tex]

8 is from the right side which is subtracted by the 4 in the left equation. Then you divide that by 4 with 2 which results in 2. You end up with 4/2 and bingo!

2

Step-by-step explanation:

do you have a graph or points

graph it is rise over run wich is y/x

and if its points then you do y1-y2/x1-x2

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6^2 =

1/36

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

When you divide 2 numbers with the same base, you subtract the exponents. We know fractions are basically division, so we would do 3-5. You get -2 as your exponent and we know negative exponents can be written two ways: [tex]6^{-2} and \frac{1}{x6^{2} }[/tex]. Both of those are there, so they are not the correct answer. B can be determined as the one not because the exponent is positive.    

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

if r was 7 it would be 7-12 so 7 - 12 is -5

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

if r is 7

7-12=-5

Answer:

who tell me how to start?

Answer: B, C, E

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:it is C:3 + 2x + 2x

Step-by-step explanation:i hop this helps and have a nice day and thank you

Answer: 0x+7y=4

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