I need help on this one please

Answer:

(2,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Solved using math.

Answer:

The solution is (2, -1) to show this by graphing do y = -1 by making a straight horizontal line at (0,-1) . And then for the other equation make a line where it starts at (0,4) and passes point (2,-1). Just plot those two points and connect them and you'll have made the line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-1: rational

√3 + -1: irration

Step-by-step explanation:

A rational number is negative, if its numerator and denominator are of the opposite signs.

Hope this helps <3

Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the gcf

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The x-intercepts are at (-4, 0) and (3, 0). The y-intercept is at (0, 1.2).

The graph is increasing at (-4, 0), (2.082, -0.604), (3, 0).

The graph is decreasing at (-2.082, 3.004), (0, 1.2), (1, 0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The polygon consists of 6 sides and the given polygon is a regular hexagon.

Step-by-step explanation:

The definition of perimeter is the total measure of the side lengths of a polygon. If the polygon said is regular, it means the polygon has equal sides and equal angles.

So the perimeter of a regular polygon is given by the formula:

P = (length of one side) x (number of sides)

In this case, the perimeter of the polygon is 19.2 cm and one side is equal to 3.2 cm.

DIVIDE (use the formula but in division to maintain a proportonal relationship):

19.2 ÷ 3.2 = 6

You could alsk check if its correct using the formula:

19.2 = 3.2 x 6 (TRUE)

A 6 sided regular polygon is known as a HEXAGON.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

B is the correct answer of this question

Answer:

74.80

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the discount

88 * 15%

88*.15

13.2

Subtract the discount from the original price

88-13.2

74.80

Answer:

3/4 of a liter

Step-by-step explanation:

2 - 5/4

Get a common denominator

2 *4/4 -  5/4

8/4 - 5/4

3/4

The denominator is 4 so rewrite 2 liters as a fraction with 4 as the denominator.

4/4 = 1 so 2 liters would be 8/4

Now subtract:

8/4 - 5/4 = 3/4

There is 3/4 of a liter left.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  0.2332

Step-by-step explanation:

The relationship between the effective annual yield (e) and the nominal annual interest rate (r) compounded n times per year is ...

  e = (1 +r/n)^n -1

For weekly compounding, we have n=52, so ...

  e = (1 +0.21/52)^52 -1 = 0.2332 . . . . . . . about 23.32%

Answer:

6b=18

b=18/6

b=3

.

.

.

.

.

.

Answer:

6b=18

b=18/6

b=3

.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

area of parallelogram is b×h

Answer:

The area of the parallelogram is 30 square meters.

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a parallelogram is given by the formula:

A = bh

Where b is base and h is height

The base of the parallelogram is:

6 + 4 = 10 m

The height perpendicular to the base is 3 m

Use the formula A = bh:

A = (10)(3)

= 30

So the area of the paralleogram is 30 m^2

Hope this helps!

Answer is in a box.

The bag contains 6 red marbles, 8 blue marbles and 9 green marbles, that is 23 marbles.

The probability that one of the 23 marbles will be picked is 1 or 100%, we are picking a marble for sure.

So what is the probability you will pick for example one of the 6 red marbles? It is 6 out of 23 but since we need percentages multiply by 100,

[tex]\frac{6}{23}\cdot100\approx26.09\%[/tex]

The probability to pick a blue marble is,

[tex]\boxed{\frac{8}{23}}\cdot100\approx34.78\%[/tex]

And the probability to pick a green marble is,

[tex]\frac{9}{23}\cdot100\approx39.13\%[/tex]

To check that everything is right you can sum all the probabilities; the probability that it will be either red, blue or green is 100% so the individual probabilities must sum to 100%, and they do,

[tex]26.09\%+34.78\%+39.13\%=100\%[/tex]

Hope this helps :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Note that since [tex]\triangle ABC \cong \triangle DEF,[/tex] we can see from the figure that [tex]\angle B[/tex] and [tex]\angle E[/tex] have the same measure.

a) To solve for the length of [tex]\overline{AB},[/tex] we write

[tex]3x + 6 = 4x \Rightarrow x = 6[/tex]

b) Since the two triangles are congruent, we can say that [tex]\angle A = \angle D[/tex] so we can write

[tex]6y + 12 = 8y + 2[/tex]

Solving for y, we get

[tex]2y = 10 \:\Rightarrow \:y = 5[/tex]

Answer:

1. Negation

2. Equivalent

3. Neither

4. Neither

Step-by-step explanation:

p ^ ~q

~q → p~

~q ∨ p

~p ∨q

Answer:

15x-9x=6x

please mark me as brainliest

Answer:

6x.

Step-by-step explanation:

15x - 9x = 6x.

Answer:

Farah: x

Ibtisam: x-3

Muna: 2(x-3) or 2x-6

Sum of all their ages: 4x-6

Step-by-step explanation:

Farah is x, so we don't need an expression for that.

Ibtisam is 3 years younger than Farah, which means that we need to subtract 3 from Farah, and that would be Ibtisam's age. x-3.

Muna is 2 TIMES Ibtisam's age, so we need to multiply whatever expression taht was used for Ibtisam by 2. Put brackets around the equation with 2 outside: 2(x-3). Solve and you get 4x-6

Now, you have all their ages in expression form, now you need to simplify by adding:

x+x+2x-6

We cannot simplify -6, so we put that aside. Add all the x's and you get 4x, insert the minus 6 at the end:

4x-6

Hope this helps!

--Applepi101

Answer:

a) X -3

b) 4x - 9

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Farah's age is X so Ibtisam will be X - 3 old since he is 3years younger than Farah

b) Farah is X years old

Ibtisam is X - 3 years old

Muna is 2(X -3) since she is 2 times older than Ibtisam.

the sum of Thier ages will be

X + X -3 + 2(x-3)

= 2x - 3 + 2x - 6

= 4x - 9

Answer:

5x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 3x + 10

g(x) = 2x - 4

(f+ g)(x)= 3x + 10 +  2x - 4

Combine like terms

           = 5x+6

Answer:

269/99

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2π or 0π are the only points that satisfy the expression, but since the restriction is 0 <= x < 2π

the answer would be 0π

The solution of the equation on the interval [0,2π) is 0.

To find Solution of the equation.

A statement that the values of two mathematical expressions are equal.

The given equation is :

7secx-7=0 on the interval [0,2π)

7secx-7=0

7secx=7

sec x =1

∴ x=0

So, the solution of the equation on the interval [0,2π) is 0.

Learn more about equation here:

https://brainly.com/question/24366859

#SPJ2

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The 1-year interest is simply the invested amount times the interest rate.

Let r represent the lower interest rate. Then r+0.02 is the higher rate, and the total interest earned is ...

  1400r + 900(r +.02) = 202

  2300r +18 = 202 . . . . . . . . . .simplify

  2300r = 184 . . . . . . . . . .subtract 18

  r = 184/2300 = 0.08 = 8% . . . . . . divide by the coefficient of r

$1400 was invested at 8%.

$900 was invested at 10%.

Answer:

at x-intercept, y = 0

4x = 28

x = 7

x intercept = (7,0)

at y-intercept, x = 0

y = 28

y intercept = (0,28)

Step-by-step explanation:

Start Unlimited: 

$70 for one line

$60 for two lines

$45 for three lines

$35 for four lines

Play More Unlimited: 

$80 for one line

$70 for two lines

$55 for three lines

$45 for four lines

Do More Unlimited: 

$80 for one line

$70 for two lines

$55 for three lines

$45 for four lines

Get More Unlimited: 

$90 for one line

$80 for two lines

$65 for three lines

$55 for four lines

Answer:

4 months

As we show that ;

40 + (60x * 4)  = 280

100 + (45x * 4) = 280

but in simultaneous equations Verizon must be set equal to 240 being 80 x 3

and T mobile must be equal to 45 x 4 = 180

so that 240+ 180 = 420 to find 4

This would be a method on distribution as "60 sign up is 1/3 more than 1st equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a simultaneous equation but trial and error is below to prove all is true.

step 1 make all equations same

40s + (60x)      * 3 = 180x  LCM   = 80 x 3   =  1   1/3 of 60

100s + (45x)     * 4 = 180x LCM   = 45  x 4   =  1 of 45 as verizon charges 1/3 more sign up.

100s- 40s + 180x = (180x) =  240 + 180

60s + 180x = 420

s = 60

so our equations must each end with 420

when we get 60s + 180x = 420  then

420 - 180 = 240

240/60 =  4

x = 4 months

Verizon = 1st and T mobile = 2nd

40 + (60x * 5)  = 340

100 + 45x * 5 = 325

with $15 out after 5 months so we try 6 months

40 + (60x * 6)  = 400

100 + 45x * 6 = 370

and see this is increasing in difference, so try a smaller value of months..

We try 4 months;

40 + (60x * 4)  = 280

100 + (45x * 4) = 280

Answer:

153250

Step-by-step explanation:

153250

Answer: 378.57mi²

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula = a²+2a√{(a²/4)+h²}

please click thanks and mark brainliest if you like :)

The amount Beth would be able to withdraw quarterly from her inheritance over the next 20 years is Quarterly Payments ≈ $11,124.53

The given parameters in the question;

Present value of inheritance, PV = $500,000

The number of years of withdrawal, n = 20 years

Interest rate, i = 6.4%

The required parameter;

The amount Beth would be able to withdraw quarterly over the next 20 years to draw the account down to zero, given a quarterly interest rate of 6.4%

Method

The required parameter is given by the payment formula

The question is related with annuity given that withdrawals will be made quarterly

The question seeks to find how much she can withdraw so as to exhaust the balance in 20 years

The amount she can withdraw quarterly is given by the payment formula as follows;

[tex]\mathbf{PMT = PV \times \dfrac{i}{1 - \left(1 + i\right)^{-n}}}[/tex]

Where;

PMT = The amount of quarterly payments

PV = The present value of the investment = $500,000

i = The interest rate = 6.4%

n = The number of years = 20 years

Therefore, we get;

[tex]\mathbf{PMT = 500,000 \times \dfrac{\dfrac{0.064}{4} }{1 - \left(1 + \dfrac{0.064}{4} \right)^{-4 \times 20}} \approx 11,124.53}[/tex]

The amount she can withdraw quarterly for the next 20 years ≈ $11,124.53

Quarterly payment, PMT = $11,124.53

Learn more about annuity here;

https://brainly.com/question/20796802