Answer:
Tourism and travel-related services include services provided by hotels and restaurants (including catering), travel agencies and tour operator services, tourist guide services and other related services.
the citric acid cycle role is
Answer:
The citric acid cycle is the final common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and amino acids. It is the most important metabolic pathway for the energy supply to the body.
Question Mode Fill in the Blank Question Fill in the blank question. In cells that contain a nucleus, the DNA is divided into multiple linear chromosomes which are organized into a complex structure called
Answer:
The correct answer is - chromatin.
Explanation:
Chromatin is a part within a chromosome consisting of DNA and protein. The DNA carries the cell's genetic instructions and these are complex structures present in multiple linear chromosomes.
The major proteins in chromatin are histones, which help package the DNA in a compact form that fits in the cell nucleus.
Reactive hyperemia is an example of .......... control of local blood flow .
and is a ........ response
A) Myogenic-Short term
B) Chemical-Long term
C) Neural-Short term
D) Metabolic-Short term
Answer:
metabolic short termExplanation:
Reactive hyperemia is the blood flow response to blood flow Occlusion whereas active active is a blood flow response to increase tissue metabolic activityphổi phải to và dài hơn phổi trái đúng không
không, tùy người thôi
nhưng thường hai phổi bằng nhau
tùy kiểu bạn thở ở mũi nào
100 POINTS!!!!!!
The theories surrounding the formation of our solar system are based on many
biased opinions
incorrect facts
non-testable data
scientific investigations
Answer:
"scientific investigations."
how does a viral immunization help prevent disease
Answer:
When people get vaccinated they there will be less change of transfer of communicable diseases
Which of the three soil types will be best for vegetable farming?
1. loam
2. clay
3. silt loam
Answer:
Explanation:1
Living in the northern hemisphere, you decide to plant tulip bulbs in the spring. You are disappointed in the summer when they do not bloom. You had forgotten that tulip bulbs need a period of vernalization in order for them to bloom. What change should you make?
a) Plant the tulip bulbs in soil that has an abundance of nutrients, especially phosphorus.
b) Make sure that the tulips are kept in shady areas as too much sun will not allow them to sprout
c) Be careful to give the tulips plenty of water while they are germinating, but reduce the amount as the plants grow.
d) Ensure the plants are established in a region that will receive long periods of dark as this is required for the tulips to bloom.
e) Plant the tulip bulbs in the fall as opposed to the spring.
Answer:
b) Make sure that the tulips are kept in shady areas as too much sun will not allow them to sprout
what is the purpose of a wetland?
What determines the composition of the soil?
1 . original rock
2. underlying rock breaks down
3. minerals that are present in the rock
4.
transported from a different location
In electron transport chain , How many ATPs are generated from NADP and FADP?
Explanation:
NADP = 3 ATP
FADP = 2 ATP
HOPE IT HELPS YOU
Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status:
A) The 1974 National Research Act
B) The Nuremberg Code
C) Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendments to the Federal Food, Drug & Cosmetics Act
D) US Public Health Service Policy
Hello!
The answer is D, The U.S Public Health Service Policy. Its main purpose was providing protection for human subjects for research work which was conducted by federal agencies. You can read more about it on HHS.gov, as it is a very interesting regulation.
I hope this helps! :)
Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status US Public Health Service Policy. Option D
What is the regulatory status?The restrictions known as the Common Rule for the protection of human subjects in research done by or supported by federal agencies are outlined in Title 45 of the Code of Federal restrictions, Part 46. These laws define moral principles and requirements for the protection of research subjects who are being used as human subjects.
The US Public Health Service (PHS) published the policy that would eventually become 45 CFR 46 in 1974. This policy established standards for the examination and approval of research involving human subjects as well as the legal foundation for the protection of those individuals. Informed consent, weighing risks and benefits, and the creation of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) to regulate research techniques were all adopted.
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Ammonia produced in the intestines from the breakdown of proteins by bacterial enzymes is the primary source of plasma ammonia
Select one:
1.True
2.False
What are the two main phases of the cell cycle
Answer:
interphase and the mitotic (M) phase.
Explanation:
The stages of the cell cycle are divided into two major phases: interphase and the mitotic (M) phase.
Answer:
The interphase & the miotic phase
Explanation:
Which of the following statements relating to leptin and the metabolism of lipids is correct. (Select all that apply.) Leptin acts mainly in the brain to stimulate appetite. High levels of leptin are interpreted as overfeeding. Insulin stimulates production of leptin in adipocytes. Leptin is a hormone involved in short-term control of eating behaviour. Higher leptin levels result in a decrease in appetite.
Answer:
High levels of leptin are interpreted as overfeeding.
Insulin stimulates production of leptin in adipocytes.
Higher leptin levels result in a decrease in appetite.
Explanation:
Leptin is a peptide hormone that helps to control body weight. This hormone (leptin) is synthesized by fat cells (i.e., adipocytes), then circulates in the blood and goes to the brain, in particular in a region of the brain called the hypothalamus, where it acts to alter food intake over the long term. Higher leptin levels trigger the hypothalamus to lower the appetite. Insulin is another peptide hormone that acts to regulate long-term leptin secretion of adipose cells through a posttranscriptional mechanism. In turn, leptin increases insulin sensitivity, thereby both hormones regulate each other. When body fat decreases as a consequence of decreased appetite, insulin and leptin concentrations in the bloodstream also decrease.
For each of the following structures, first indicate its function in the fetus; then, note its fate (what happens to it or what it is converted to after birth).
a. Umbilical artery
b. Umbilical vein
c. Ductus venosus
d. Ductus arterious
e. Foramen ovale
Answer:
1. Functions:
a. Umbilical artery >> carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
b. Umbilical vein >> transports oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
c. Ductus venosus >> allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver
d. Ductus arterious >> allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's non-functioning lungs
e. Foramen ovale >> oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the pulmonary circulation
2. After the bird:
1. Umbilical artery >> medial umbilical ligament
2. Umbilical vein >> round ligament of the liver
3. Ductus venosus >> ligamentum venosum
4. Ductus arteriosus >> ligamentum arteriosum
5. Foramen ovale >> fossa ovalis
Explanation:
The umbilical artery is a paired artery localized in the abdominal and pelvic regions, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical cord. The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated part of the umbilical artery that arises from the internal iliac arteries. In utero, the umbilical arteries carry waste products back to the placenta, whereas the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. The round ligament of the liver (also known as ligamentum teres hepatis) is a remnant of the umbilical vein that exists in the embryonic stage, it connects the left lobe of the liver to the umbilicus. The ductus venosus is a slender shunt that allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver, it connects the intra-hepatic portion of the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The ligamentum venosum is an extrahepatic, slender, and fibrous remnant of the fetal ductus venosus that travels between the left portal vein and the inferior vena cava. The ductus arteriosus is a fetal artery that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery. The ligamentum arteriosum is a nonfunctional vestige of the ductus arteriosus, it is attached to the superior surface of the pulmonary trunk. The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped, small, opening in the wall (septum) between the two upper chambers of the heart. The fossa ovalis is a vestige stricture of the foramen ovale of the embryonic heart, which forms a depression in the right atrium of the heart.
Bacterial strain A (met , his-, arg ) is mixed with bacterial strain B (met-, his , arg-), grown in complete media, then plated on minimal media supplemented with histidine. Bacteria grows on the plate, which indicates that ________.
Answer:
Plate has all the essential nutrients that is required by the bacteria.
Explanation:
Bacteria grows on the plate, which indicates that the plate has all the essential nutrients that is required by the bacteria. Bacteria needs a type of media for its growth which contains all the necessary items which plays a key role in its growth and development. This plate has a media that contains food which the bacteria use for its growth and development so that's why we can say that plate has all the essential nutrients that is required by the bacteria.
3. Which of the following conditions are NOT vital to evolution?
a. overproduction
b. finite resources
c. the environment
d. the fossil record
Answer:
The answer would be D. The fossil record
Explanation:
The fossil record is for proving evolution, not a factor that causes evolution.
Rosita Sanchez is a 2 month pregnant and she and her doctor are worried because her rash was diagnosed as a—————-. They are concerned because this condition can produce defects in rosita’s
developing child
Answer:
Rubella
Explanation:
Rubella is an infectious disease caused by a virus referred to as rubivirus, which can be spread from pregnant women to their unborn children through the bloodstream. During the first trimester of pregnancy, rubella can cause the death of the developing fetus (i.e., miscarriage) or serious birth defects such as, for example, heart defects, cataracts, deafness, mental incapacities, etc. Rubella symptoms include, among others, rash, joint pain, swollen lymph glands (especially behind the ears), headache, and mild fever.
Which is NOT an immune component that can directly attack & destroy target cells?
a. macrophages
b. cytoxic T cells
c. helper T cells
d. natural killer cells
Answer:
Macrophages are part of your innate immune system, which is antigen-independent and does not require activation.
Explanation:
Macrophages phagocytize (internalize) all non-self pathogens it encounters. These do their job without activation. Other cells in the innate immune system include basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils (these cells are polymorphonuclear leukocytes), mast cells, and dendritic cells, which act as the bridge between your innate and adaptive immune system.
All of the other entities listed above are part of your adaptive immune system. The adaptive immune system is antigen-dependent and requires activation. This section of your immune system responds differently to different pathogens, and has the bonus of having immunologic memory, the ability to remember pathogens after infection and respond much quicker upon secondary and tertiary encounters.
Note: All lymphocyte types begin as naïve cells, which then differentiate into their fully matured form upon activation.
Helper T cells are a type of CD4+ T cell that has the job of activating B and T lymphocytes. There are two different types of T helper cells: Th1 and Th2. Th1 cells secrete the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFNγ), and is primarily involved with the stimulation and activation of cytotoxic T cells, while Th2 cells secrete a variety of cytokines and are responsible for activating and assisting with B cells to make antibodies. To make a long story short, Th cells interact with APC (Antigen Presenting Cells), specifically their Class II MHC (a group of genes that present exogenous proteins). The Th cells then proliferate and gain the ability to activate these APC cells and provide the necessary signals to activate B and T cells and make them proliferate and do their specific function.
DNA is referred to as a______, meaning that it has
strands that are______together.
Answer:
molecule
wound
Explanation:
DNA is the chemical name for molecule. The strands wind together and form a double helix.
Listt any four general characteristics of pisces.
the job transfer rna is to bring specific amino acids to be added to the peptide chain during protein synthesis which takes palce in the
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
the function of the marrow of long bones in the body is to?
A.store iron
B. Reduce Friction
C. make blood plasma
D.make red blood cells
Answer:
Make red blood cells
Explanation:
Bone marrow is a spongy substance found in the center of the bones. It manufactures bone marrow stem cells and other substances, which in turn produce blood cells. Each type of blood cell made by the bone marrow has an important job. Red blood cells carry oxygen to tissues in the body.
Fertilization, Fruit and Seed Formation x3 3. a. name the two processes that lead to seed formation in flowering
Answer:
Pollination, the transfer of pollen from flower-to-flower in angiosperms or cone ... In angiosperms, the process of seed development begins with double ...
Missing: x3 | Must include: x3
HELP ASAP I WILL GIVE BRAINLIST
An unknown solution has a pH of 7.1. Which of these chemicals is likely to increase the pH the most when added to the solution?
HF
KOH
NH3
HNO3
Answer:
It is most likely KOH
Explanation:
NH3 is classified as a weak base so I'd suspect that to be incorrect although it does have a higher pH
The chemical that is likely to increase the pH the most when added to the solution is KOH. The correct option is B.
What is pH?
pH is the scale for the measurement of acidity and the basicity of any solution. pH is a scale from 1 to 14. The lowest pH will be highly acidic and the highest pH will be the highest basic.
The lowest the pH, it will donate the highest hydronium ions, and with the highest pH, it will dissociate completely into the solution. KOH dissociates completely into ions.
KOH or potassium hydroxide is a strong base. When the base is added to a solution, it increases its basicity. So it will increase the pH of the solution. All others are acids that will lower the pH of the solution.
Thus, the correct option is B. KOH.
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Amoeba sisters video recap Biomagnification
Biomagnification refers to the presence of higher concentration of chemical toxins as a result of the accumulation of toxins in organisms.
What is biomagnigication?Biomagnification is best explained as a condition in which the chemical concentration of a toxin is amplified in an organism compared to the environment in which the organism is found.
Biomagnification usually is observed as one goes higher in the trophic levels of organisms.
For example, chemical pollutant found in water may be present at tolerable levels. However, in organisms, living in the water, the concentration of the pollutant is higher as these organisms accumulate these toxins in their tissues.
Therefore, biomagnification refers to the accumulation of toxins in organisms higher than found in their environment.
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How is CRISPR-Cas9 different from existing DNA editing technologies?
Answer:
CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the science world. It is faster, cheaper and more accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA and has a wide range of potential applications.
Explanation:
HOW CRISPR IS DIFFERENT FROM OTHER TECHNOLOGIES
CRISPR-Cpf1 differs in several important ways from the previously described Cas9, with significant implications for research and therapeutics. ... The Cpf1 system is simpler in that it requires only a single RNA. The Cpf1 enzyme is also smaller than the standard SpCas9, making it easier to deliver into cells and tissues.
what would happen if spleen and tonsils are removed from the body
Answer:
In serious cases, your doctor might suggest that you have your spleen removed, which is called a splenectomy. It's entirely possible to live a normal, healthy life after having your spleen removed. Your risk of developing infections throughout your life may increase.
Life cycle of peziza
growth stage
While the pizza category was in the growth stage, the product life cycle of long-lived products was observed in the rice category.
