Say the stock closed at $24.50 at expiration and the option was assigned. what would be your effective cost per share for your shares of mklq?

Answer:

see photo attached for detailed information

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Discussion

You haven't given us any choices. Always do that it you have them. Look for the graph that looks like the one below. It has the following characteristics

Answer:

all the answer choices are correct

Step-by-step explanation:

reflections & rotations dont change any of the angle measures

[tex]\textbf{a)}\\\\~~~~~~8x+y = 15\\\\\implies y = 15-8x\\\\\textbf{b)}\\\\~~~~~~9x+y = 13\\\\\implies y = 13 -9x\\\\\textbf{c)}\\\\~~~~~-4x+y = -6 \\\\\implies y = 4x -6 \\\\\textbf{d)}\\\\~~~~~-5x +y = -1\\\\\implies y = 5x -1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 8x+y=15

y=15-8x

2. 9x+y=13

y=13-9x

3. -4x+y=-6

y=4x-6

4. -5x+y=-1

y=5x-1

The researcher ought to have divided the volunteers into two groups; the treatment group and the control group at random.

The scientific method must include the tools of observation, experimentation and conclusion.

In this case, the researcher ought to have divided the volunteers into two groups; the treatment group and the control group at random.

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The probability of rolling the die once to get a four is 1/6

So we do 1/6*1/6*1/6 which is 1/216 since it's combined probabilities

Hope this helped

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Explanation:

There are two approaches here.

Method 1

Focus on the numbers along the top only.

The left arrow points at 50 while the arrow on the right points at 180. Subtract these numbers to get 180 - 50 = 130

------------------------------

Method 2

Focus on the numbers along the bottom row this time.

The left arrow points at 130 and the right arrow points at 0

The difference of which is 130 - 0 = 130

Because we're subtracting off 0, it means we can simply look at only one number without having to do any math. This only works if the other portion of the angle is pointing at 0 or 180.

------------------------------

Notice that 130 degrees is larger than 90, so this angle is obtuse. This means that if you aren't sure whether to go with 50 or 130, it will depend on if it's acute or obtuse.

Answer:

26.17%

Step-by-step explanation:

P(Grey) = 1/4

P(Grey at least 2 times in 4) = 1 - P(no Grey in 4) - P(1 Grey in 4)

P(no Grey in 4) = 4C0 * 3/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 = 81/256

P(1 Grey in 4) = 4C1 * 1/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 = 27/64

P(Grey at least 2 times in 4) = 1 -  81/256 -  27/64 = (256-81-108)/256=67/256=26.17%

<m(lkj)+<m(ghi)=180°

34°+<m(ghi)=180°

180°-34°=<m(ghi)

146°=<m(ghi)

Answer:

(6, 0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Coordinates are written in the form (x, y), where x is the x-axis value that the point is in, in this case 6, and where y is the y-axis value, in this case 0.

Hi!

Answer:

(6, 0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Coordinate point "G" on this graph is on the very bottom. On the X axis, point G is on the 6. On the Y axis, its on the 0, so since the domain, (X) comes first before the range, (Y), you get (6, 0)

I hope this helped! Have a wonderful day! :)

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

8 3/4 to the nearest whole number is 9

Answer:

y = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

JKLM ~ PQRS means that quadrilateral JKLM is similar to quadrilateral PQRS.

In similar shapes the corresponding sides have same ratio and the corresponding angles are congruent.

This means angle J is congruent to angle P, K is congruent to Q, L is congruent to R and M is congruent to S. Order of the vertices matters.

Solving for y.

Angle J is congruent to angle P.

5y - 4 = 71 Add 4 on both sides.

5y = 71 + 4

5y = 75  Divide both sides with 5.

y = 15

(Btw your solution for x is wrong.)

Answer:

There are 525 chairs in the hall.

Step-by-step explanation:

35 x 15 = 525

An example to learn this:

35 is the amount of all the chairs in ONE row, when you times 35 by 15, it is DUPLICATING those chairs by 15, equaling to an equal 35 chairs in EACH row! hope this helped.

Answer:

x = 59

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] x = 14 [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex] ← convert to improper fraction

[tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] x = [tex]\frac{59}{4}[/tex] ( multiply both sides by 4 to clear the fractions )

x = 59

Check the picture below.

The best answer from the options that proves that the residual plot shows that the line of best fit is appropriate for the data is: ( Statement 1 ) Yes, because the points have no clear pattern

X         Given     Predicted     Residual value

1            3.5           4.06             -0.56

2           2.3           2.09             0.21

3            1.1            0.12               0.98

4           2.2           -1.85              4.05

5          -4.1            -3.82            -0.28

The residual value is calculated as follows using this formula: ( Given - predicted )

1) ( 3.5 - 4.06 ) = -0.56

2) ( 2.3 - 2.09 ) = 0.21

3) ( 1.1 - 0.12 ) = 0.98

4) (2.2 - (-1.85) = 4.05

5) ( -4.1 - (-3.82) = -0.28

Residual values are the difference between the given values and the predicted values in a given data set and the residual plot is used to represent these values .

attached below is the residual plot of the data set

hence we can conclude from the residual plot attached below that the line of best fit is appropriate for the data because the points have no clear pattern ( i.e. scattered )

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Answer:

A: Yes, because the points have no clear pattern.

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge quiz 100%

Answer:

a) 11/100

b) 60 times

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

We want to find the probability that a 3 will be rolled.

Probability = # of favorable outcomes / total # of outcomes.

Here the number of favorable outcomes will be the number of times a 3 was rolled and the total number of outcomes will simply be the # of times that the dice was rolled which can be calculated by finding the sum of the frequencies of each number.

So # of favorable outcomes = 11 ( as the dice was rolled on a 3 11 times.)

And the total number of outcomes would be 100 ( the sum of the frequencies , 12 + 35 + 11 + 23 + 7 + 12 = 100 )

So the probability of rolling a 3 would be 11/100

b)

For this part we want to find the expected times that a 6 would be rolled if we rolled the die 500 more times.

To calculate this we simply find the probability of rolling a 6 and then multiply that by 500.

So again probability = # of favorable outcomes / total # of outcomes.

Here # of favorable outcomes is frequency of rolling a 6 which would be 12 and the total number of outcomes is 100 as we found out during the last part.

So the probability of rolling a 6 is 12/100 or 3/25

We then multiply this by 500 to find the expected number of times a 6 would be rolled if the dice was rolled 500 more times

So our answer = 3/25 × 500 = 60 times

Quadratic equation has a leading degrees of 2. The correct equation in vertex form is (x - 3)^2 + 5

Quadratic equation has a leading degrees of 2.

Given the quadratic function expressed as:

f(x) = x^2 - 6x + 14

Complete the square

x^2 - 6x + (-3)^2 - (-3)^2 + 14

(x- 3)^2 - 9 + 14
(x - 3)^2 + 5

Hence the correct equation in vertex form is (x - 3)^2 + 5

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Answer:

8%

Step-by-step explanation:

9+3=12 (total number of students that write left handed)

90+60=150 (total number of 6th graders)

12/150 x 100% = 8%

Answer:

A. 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor is 4.

If you multiply 8, 5, and 2 by 4, you get 32, 20, and 8.

Answer:

44 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

angle c = 90 degrees

angle a = 46 degrees

the measure of all sides on a triangle is 180

so to solve for the other side we can do this equation...

180 - (90 + 46) = 44

hope this helped, mark as brainliest pls

Answer:

9/25

Step-by-step explanation:

3x3 is 9 and 5x5 is 25 so that would equal to 9/25

Answer:

9/25

Step-by-step explanation:

first you do 3x3=9

                   5x5

                   9

                 5x5=25

9/25 is your answer :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C) Yes, because 1 and 5 are congruent

Step-by-step explanation:

Same-side congruent angles prove this to be true

Answer:

The answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]m = \boxed 7[/tex]

Combine like terms

[tex]21=33\cdot \mathrm{m}-21-27\cdot \mathrm{m}[/tex]

Group like terms

[tex]21=\left(33\cdot \mathrm{m}-27\cdot \mathrm{m}\right)-21[/tex]

Simplify the arithmetic

[tex]21=6\cdot \mathrm{m}-21[/tex]

Swap sides

[tex]6\mathrm{m}-21=21[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

A) as you can see there is no current flowing in a bar magnet so (incorrect)

B) Lines of magnetic field is going in A-->B direction so it have starting and ending points.(incorrect)

C) Yes whenever a magnetic object is placed near the another magnetic object they either attract or repell so they have a force in a form of push and pull [correct]

D)No because magnetic field lines goes from North--> South so A is the South pole [ incorrect]

E) Yes it will point always towards North pole of the magnet [correct]

F) yes it depends upon the density of field lines[correct]

G)No the near the magnet is it becomes more stronger as compared to magnet kept far.(incorrect)

So option C E F are correct

Hope this helps

Have a great day

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] = ( - 3c + 6) + ( - c + 8)[/tex]

[tex] = - 3c + 6 - c + 8[/tex]

[tex] = - 3c - c + 6 + 8[/tex]

= -4c + 14

hence -4c + 14 is the answer ...

hope it helped !!

Answer:

5% is the percetange for 3 out of 60

Answer:

5%

Step-by-step explanation:

you know 10% of 60 is 6. 3 is half of 6, and 5% is half of 10

I hope this helps and have a wonderful day :)

For the spinner with 3 sectors, the total number of outcomes for 3 spins is 27.

A combination is a mathematical technique that determines the number of possible arrangements.

Let's we have to define

A, B, and C, as the regions in the spinner.

So, we spin it 3 times, and for each of these times there are 3 outcomes, so the outcomes will be of the form:

The outcome of spin 1, the outcome of spin 2, outcome of spin 3.

The total number of  different outcomes will be:

3^3 = 27

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