Answer:
The answer is x=5.
Step-by-step explanation:
11x + 7x + 90 = 180
18x + 90 = 180
-90 -90
= 18x = 90
x = 5
x is 5!
Value of x is 10°.
Correct option is B.
What is angle?A figure which is formed by two rays or lines that shares a common endpoint is called an angle. The word “angle” is derived from the Latin word “angulus”, which means “corner”.
Given,
a || b
cut by transversal s and t
lines b and t have angle = 90°
The first top left angle between a, s, t = 7x
The last bottom angle between s and b = 11x
a || b, so a and t will also have angle = 90°
by the figure,
180° - 11x + 90° - 7x + 90° = 180°
360° - 18x = 180°
18x = 180°
x = 10°
Hence, 10° is value of x.
Learn more about angle here:
brainly.com/question/28451077
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the ortiz family is building a barn on a property with a perimeter of 120 meters. what is the area of the property that Mr. Ortiz is building the barn on?
Answer:
900 square meters
Step-by-step explanation:
The property is in the shape of a square.
The perimeter of a square is given as:
P = 4L
where L = length of its side
Therefore, the length of the property is:
120 = 4 * L
L = 120 / 4 = 30 meters
The area of a square is given as:
A = L * L
Therefore, the area of the property is:
A = 30 * 30 = 900 square meters
Solve. -2 1/3 - (-5)=
Answer:
[tex]\frac{8}{3}[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
[tex]-2\frac{1}{3} - (-5)\\=\frac{-7}{3} + 5\\= \frac{-7}{3} + \frac{15}{3} \\= \frac{8}{3}[/tex]
Hope this helps!
Answer:
8/3 or 2 2/3
Step-by-step explanation:
-2 1/3 - (-5)
-7/3 + 5
-7/3 + 15/3
8/3
00:00
Use the drop-down menu to complete the comparison
1 mi 72 in
Choose...
5,286 ft
Answer:
5286 ft
Step-by-step explanation:
The question has been answered but I guess you need an explanation on how the answer was derived.
Given Parameter
1 mi 72 inch
Required
Convert to feet
To complete this conversion, we need to split the given data into 2.
1 mi and 72 inch
= 1 mi + 72 inch
Then we convert them separately.
From unit of standard conversion;
1 mile (1 mi) is equivalent to 5280 ft
Also from unit of standard conversion
1 inch = 1/12 foot
So, 72 inches will be
=> 72 * 1/12 ft
=> 72/12 ft
=> 6 ft
Now that we have the equivalent of 1 mi and 72 in, in foot.
We can then write the following;
1 mi + 72 inch
=> 5280 ft + 6 ft
=> 5286 ft.
Hence, 1 mi 72 inch is equivalent to 5286 ft
Answer:
Use the drop-down menu to complete the comparison.
1 mi 72 in.
=
5,286 ft
Step-by-step explanation:
To complete the square for x2 + 18x = 4, add what
to both sides
Answer:
subtract 4 to both sides ending with
x^2+18-4=0
A sample of 1500 computer chips revealed that 41% of the chips fail in the first 1000 hours of their use. The company's promotional literature claimed that less than 44% fail in the first 1000 hours of their use. Is there sufficient evidence at the 0.02 level to support the company's claim?
Answer:
Yes, there will be sufficient evidence at the 0.02 level to support the company's claim
Step-by-step explanation:
Firstly we need to state the null and alternative hypothesis for the above question
We also need to test whether the proportion of chips that fails before 1000 hours is under 0.44. Hence, our hypotheses will be:
H o: p = 0.48
H a: p > 0.48
Where P represent the proportion of Chips.
An article in USA Today stated that Internal surveys paid for by directory assistance providers show that even the most accurate companies give out wrong numbers 15% of the time. Assume that you are testing such a provider by making 10 requests and also assume that the provider gives the wrong telephone number 15% of the time.
Required:
a. Find the probability of getting one wrong number.
b. Find the probability of getting at most one wrong number.
c. If you do get at most one wrong number, does it appear that the rate of wrong numbers is not 15%, as claimed?
Answer:
a. 11.26 % b. 6.76 %. It appears so since 6.76 % ≠ 15 %
Step-by-step explanation:
a. This is a binomial probability.
Let q = probability of giving out wrong number = 15 % = 0.15
p = probability of not giving out wrong number = 1 - q = 1 - 0.15 = 0.75
For a binomial probability, P(x) = ⁿCₓqˣpⁿ⁻ˣ. With n = 10 and x = 1, the probability of getting a number wrong P(x = 1) = ¹⁰C₁q¹p¹⁰⁻¹
= 10(0.15)(0.75)⁹
= 1.5(0.0751)
= 0.1126
= 11.26 %
b. At most one wrong is P(x ≤ 1) = P(0) + P(1)
= ¹⁰C₀q⁰p¹⁰⁻⁰ + ¹⁰C₁q¹p¹⁰⁻¹
= 1 × 1 × (0.75)¹⁰ + 10(0.15)(0.75)⁹
= 0.0563 + 0.01126
= 0.06756
= 6.756 %
≅ 6.76 %
Since the probability of at most one wrong number i got P(x ≤ 1) = 6.76 % ≠ 15 % the original probability of at most one are not equal, it thus appears that the original probability of 15 % is wrong.
