if the ratio of men and women is 5 : 7 and if there are 1224 people how many of them are men

Answer: 8

Step-by-step explanation:

I do not understand the question. But if my interpretation is correct, then:

If there are 64 players and 3 rounds, 32 will get out in the first round. 16 will get out in the second, and 8 will get out on the third. Thus, the answer is 64-(32+16+8) or just simply 8.

Therefore, the length of the photo after the enlargement is 9 inches.

The initial length of the photo is given as 4 inches. After the enlargement, the length becomes 5 more inches. To find the final length, we can add 5 inches to the initial length.

Initial length of the photo: 4 inches

Additional length after enlargement: 5 inches

Final length = Initial length + Additional length

Final length = 4 inches + 5 inches

Final length = 9 inches

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Answer:

8x - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 3 - (5 - 6x) ← distribute parenthesis by - 1

= 2x + 3 - 5 + 6x ← collect like terms

= (2x + 6x) + (3 - 5)

= 8x + (- 2)

= 8x - 2

The value of x in the rhombus ABCD is determined as 23.

option B.

The value of x is calculated by applying the following formula as shown below.

the diagonals of a rhombus intersects at 90 degrees;

the complementary angle of  (4x - 25) = 90 - (4x - 25)

90 - (4x - 25) = x (alternate angles are equal)

90 - 4x + 25 = x

115 = 4x + x

115 = 5x

divide both sides of the equation by 5 to obtain the value of x;

5x = 115

x = 115 / 5

x = 23

Thus, the value of x in the rhombus ABCD is determined as 23.

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The probability of getting a black card and a numbered card is 9/26.

To calculate the probability of getting a black card (E1), we need to determine the number of black cards in a standard deck of 52 cards.

There are 26 black cards in total, which consist of 13 spades (black) and 13 clubs (black).

Therefore, the probability of drawing a black card (P(E1)) is:

P(E1) = Number of favorable outcomes / Total number of possible outcomes

P(E1) = 26 / 52

Simplifying this fraction, we get:

P(E1) = 1/2

So the probability of drawing a black card is 1/2.

To calculate the probability of drawing a numbered card (E2), we need to determine the number of numbered cards (2 through 10) in a standard deck.

Each suit (spades, hearts, diamonds, clubs) contains one card for each numbered value from 2 to 10, totaling 9 numbered cards per suit.

Therefore, the probability of drawing a numbered card (P(E2)) is:

P(E2) = Number of favorable outcomes / Total number of possible outcomes

P(E2) = 36 / 52

Simplifying this fraction, we get:

P(E2) = 9/13

So the probability of drawing a numbered card is 9/13.

To calculate the probability of both events occurring together (getting a black card and a numbered card), we multiply the individual probabilities:

P(E1 ∩ E2) = P(E1) × P(E2)

P(E1 ∩ E2) = (1/2) × (9/13)

Simplifying this fraction, we get:

P(E1 ∩ E2) = 9/26

Therefore, the probability of getting a black card and a numbered card is 9/26.

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Therefore, it will take approximately 7.67 minutes to fill the wading pool completely.

The round wading pool has a diameter of 115 cm and a depth of 25 cm. To find the volume of the pool, we can use the formula for the volume of a cylinder, which is

V = πr^2h.

Since the pool is round, the radius (r) is half the diameter, which is

115 cm / 2 = 57.5 cm.

Plugging in the values, we have

V = π(57.5 cm)^2 * 25 cm ≈ 260,979 cm^3.

The hose is filling the pool at a rate of 34,000 cm^3 per minute.

To determine how long it will take to fill the pool, we divide the volume of the pool by the rate of filling:

260,979 cm^3 / 34,000 cm^3/min ≈ 7.67 minutes.

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Answer: 36 oz box

Step-by-step explanation:

3.1/12=0.258333

7.9/360.291444

Thus, the 36 oz box is the better buy

From the table , the insurance cost for the second year based on the prescription given is : $1329

Using the prescription table, the six cylinder compact , second year car with a mileage of 14000 falls in the mid table category with the 13000 mileage label .

The operating cost in insurance for the second year is therefore $1329.

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The universal set for sets A, B, and C is {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8}.

The universal set is the set that contains all the elements under consideration. In this case, we have three sets: A, B, and C. To determine the universal set for all three sets, we need to identify the set that includes all the unique elements from each of the individual sets.

Set A contains the elements {1, 3, 5}, Set B contains the elements {2, 4, 6}, and Set C contains the elements {0, 2, 4, 6, 8}. To form the universal set, we need to combine all these elements without any repetition.

By observing the elements in Sets A, B, and C, we can see that the universal set would be the set that includes all the unique elements from these sets. Therefore, the universal set for all three sets is the set that contains {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8}.

This means that any element that is present in at least one of the sets A, B, or C is included in the universal set. It covers all the possible elements that can be found in these sets.

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Question

If set A = {1, 3, 5}, B = {2, 4, 6} and C = {0, 2, 4, 6, 8}. Then write the universal set for all three sets.

Selena and Drake both are correct.

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The sketch of the front elevation and the side elevation of the prism are added as an attachment

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

The prism

Using the figure as a guide, we understand that:

The front elevation is a rectangle of 2m by 0.5m

While the side elevation is a rectangle merged with a trapezoid

Next, we draw the elevations (see attachment)

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Answer:

6610

Step-by-step explanation:

We have tan(X) = opposite/ adjacent

tan(QBP) = PQ/BQ

tan(35) = PQ/BQ    ---eq(1)

tan(QAP) = PQ/AQ

tan(20) = [tex]\frac{PQ}{AB +BQ}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{1}{\frac{AB+BQ}{PQ} } \\\\=\frac{1}{\frac{AB}{PQ} +\frac{BQ}{PQ} } \\\\= \frac{1}{\frac{230}{PQ} + tan(35)} \;\;\;(from\;eq(1))\\\\= \frac{1}{\frac{230 + PQ tan(35)}{PQ} } \\\\= \frac{PQ}{230+PQ tan(35)}[/tex]

230*tan(20) + PQ*tan(20)*tan(35) = PQ

⇒ 230 tan(20) = PQ - PQ*tan(20)*tan(35)

⇒ 230 tan(20) = PQ[1 - tan(20)*tan(35)]

[tex]PQ = \frac{230 tan(20)}{1 - tan(20)tan(35)}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{230*0.36}{1 - 0.36*0.7}\\\\= \frac{82.8}{1-0.25} \\\\=\frac{82.8}{0.75} \\\\= 110.4[/tex]

PQ = 110.4

≈110

Height above sea level = 6500 + PQ

6500 + 110

= 6610

The function with the steepest slope is [tex]y = 7x - 3[/tex].

The correct answer is C.

The linear function with the steepest slope is the one with the highest absolute value for the coefficient of x.

Let's compare the coefficients of x in each of the given functions:

[tex]y = -8x + 5[/tex]

Slope: -8

[tex]y - 9 = -2(x + 1)[/tex]

Simplifying, we get [tex]y - 9 = -2x - 2[/tex]

Rearranging, we have [tex]y = -2x + 7[/tex]

Slope: -2

[tex]y = 7x - 3[/tex]

Slope: 7

[tex]y + 2 = 6(x + 10)[/tex]

Simplifying, we get [tex]y + 2 = 6x + 60[/tex]

Rearranging, we have [tex]y = 6x + 58[/tex]

Slope: 6

Therefore, the steepest slope is the [tex]y = 7x - 3[/tex].

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Answer: Triangle C only

Step-by-step explanation: using the formula to find out if the triangle are right angle (a^2+b^2=c^2) the legs are supposed to equal to the hypotenuse. A and B arentaren't equal to the hypotenuse

The trigonometric functions for the angle with the least possible positive measure and the point (-2, √3) on the terminal side are:

sin(0) = √3/2

cos(0) = -1/2

tan(0) = -√3

csc(0) = 2/√3

sec(0) = -2

cot(0) = -1/√3

To sketch an angle in standard position, we start by placing the initial side along the positive x-axis. Since we want the angle with the least possible positive measure, we choose the smallest positive angle, which is 0 degrees or 0 radians.

Next, we plot the point (-2, √3) on the terminal side of the angle. This point lies in the third quadrant of the coordinate plane. We draw a line segment from the origin to this point, representing the terminal side of the angle.

To find the values of the trigonometric functions, we can use the coordinates of the point (-2, √3) to determine the side lengths of a right triangle. The x-coordinate (-2) represents the length of the adjacent side, and the y-coordinate (√3) represents the length of the opposite side. The hypotenuse can be found using the Pythagorean theorem.

Using the values of the sides, we can calculate the trigonometric functions:

sin(0) = opposite/hypotenuse = √3/2

cos(0) = adjacent/hypotenuse = -1/2

tan(0) = opposite/adjacent = -√3

csc(0) = 1/sin(0) = 2/√3

sec(0) = 1/cos(0) = -2

cot(0) = 1/tan(0) = -1/√3

The trigonometric functions for the angle with the least possible positive measure and the point (-2, √3) on the terminal side are:

sin(0) = √3/2

cos(0) = -1/2

tan(0) = -√3

csc(0) = 2/√3

sec(0) = -2

cot(0) = -1/√3

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The following are the solutions to the given problem:A. Cost of Equity Capital:Given,Beta of the firm = 1.00Risk-Free Rate (Rf) = 3.5%Equity Risk Premium = 6%Cost of Equity (Re) = Rf + Beta*(Equity Risk Premium)Re = 3.5% + 1.00(6%)Re = 9.5%B. After-Tax Cost of Debt:Given,

Pre-tax cost of debt = 4.5%Tax rate = 40%

After-tax cost of debt (Rd) = Pre-tax cost of debt x (1 - Tax Rate)Rd = 4.5% x (1 - 0.40)Rd = 2.7%C. Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC):Given,

Weightage of Equity (We) = 100 million shares / 100 million shares + 250 million of debtWe = 28.57%Weightage of Debt (Wd) = 250 million of debt / 100 million shares + 250 million of debt

Wd = 71.43%WACC = (We x Re) + (Wd x Rd)WACC = (28.57% x 9.5%) + (71.43% x 2.7%)WACC = 3.91%D. Cost of Equity after Restructuring:Given,New Default Spread = 3 x Old Default SpreadOld Default Spread = 2.7% - 3.5%Old Default Spread = -0.8%New Default Spread = 3 x -0.8%

New Default Spread = -2.4%New After-tax Cost of Debt (Rd) = 2.7% + (-2.4%)Rd = 0.3%New Weightage of Debt (Wd) = 750 million of debt / 100 million shares + 750 million of debt

Wd = 88.24%New Weightage of Equity (We) = 100 million shares / 100 million shares + 750 million of debtWe = 11.76%New Cost of Equity (Re) = 9.5%Re = 9.5%New WACC

= (We x Re) + (Wd x Rd)New WACC = (11.76% x 9.5%) + (88.24% x 0.3%)New WACC = 0.53%E. After-tax Cost of Debt after Restructuring:Given,

New After-tax Cost of Debt (Rd) = 0.3%F. WACC after Restructuring:New WACC = 0.53%G. Value (Price) per Share for the Remaining Shareholders in the Company:Given,

New Shares = 500 million / $11 per share = 45,454,545 shares New Equity Shares = 100 million shares + 45,454,545 shares = 145,454,545 shares Value of Equity = 145,454,545

shares x $11 per shareValue of Equity = $1,600,000,000Value per Share for the Remaining Shareholders in the Company = $1,600,000,000 / 100 million sharesValue per Share for the Remaining Shareholders in the Company = $16.00 per share.

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Navern's manufacturing cycle efficiency (MCE) for its elevators is: 41.4%

The formula for obtaining the manufacturing cycle efficiency is value-added time divided by the production cycle time * 100. In the data given, the process and inspection times qualify as a value-added time

Process time = 23 days

Inspection time = 13 days

Value added time = 23 + 13 = 36days

The production cycle time = Move time + process time + queue time + inspection time + wait time

= 22 + 12 + 23 + 13 + 17 days

= 87 days

So, the manufacturing efficiency time = 36/87 * 100

= 41.4%

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Answer:74

Step-by-step explanation:

DCB arc's degree is equal to 2*<DAB so,

arc DCB=106*2=212 degrees

cicle is 360 degrees total, so,

360-212=148 degrees

and it is arc DAB which is arc for <DCB and same rule applies here:

arc DAB=2*<DCB

<DCB=DAB/2=148/2=74

The completely factorized form of the expression q² - 4 is (q + 2)(q - 2).

Given the expression in the question:

q² - 4

To factorize the expression q² - 4 completely, we can use the formula for the difference of squares.

The difference of squares formula states that :

a² - b² can be factored as (a + b)(a - b).

Given that:

q² - 4

Replace 4 with 2²
q² - 2²

From this expression, let a = x and b = 2

a² - b² =  (a + b)(a - b)

q² - 2² = (q + 2)(q - 2)

Therefore, the factored form is (q + 2)(q - 2).

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Answer:

the answer to your question how many outcomes is really gonn adepend on you you slove you problem but my amswer is gonna be 7.

Answer:

probability : 4/7 ≈ 0.57

Step-by-step explanation:

b₁ = 3 + 4 + 3 = 10

b₂ = 4

h² = 5² - 3² = 4²

⇒ h = 4

Ar of trapezium = [tex]\frac{b_1 + b_2}{2}h[/tex]

[tex]\frac{10 + 4}{2} 4\\\\= 14*2\\\\= 28[/tex]

Ar of shaded region = h² = 4² = 16

Probability that the point lies on the shaded region = [tex]\frac{Ar \;of \;shaded \;region }{Ar\; of\; total \;region }[/tex]

= 16/28

= 4/7

≈ 0.57

Answer:

Whats the question?

Let the time spent practicing math be x minutes. Since Pam spends 20 minutes longer practicing dance than math, she spends (x + 20) minutes practicing dance. Therefore, the total time spent practicing math and dance is

:x + (x + 20) = 2x + 20

Since she spends 80 minutes every day practicing math and dance, we can create an equation as follows:2x + 20 = 80To find the value of x, we need to solve the equation

.2x + 20 = 80

Subtract 20 from both sides of the equation

:2x = 60

Divide both sides by

2:x = 30

Therefore, Pam spends 30 minutes practicing math every day.Part B: Pam spends 30 minutes practicing math every day. To find the total time she spends practicing dance, we can use the fact that she spends 20 minutes longer practicing dance than math. Therefore, she spends:

30 + 20 = 50 minutes

practicing dance every day.Part C: It is not possible for Pam to have spent 60 minutes practicing dance if she practices for a total of exactly 80 minutes and dances for 20 minutes longer than she works on her math. If Pam spends 30 minutes practicing math every day, then she spends 50 minutes practicing dance. Therefore, the total time she spends practicing math and dance is

:30 + 50 = 80

Since the total time spent practicing math and dance is exactly 80 minutes, it is not possible for Pam to have spent 60 minutes practicing dance.

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Answer:

To calculate the future value of your monthly investments after saving your money, i can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity:

FV = P * ((1 + r)^n - 1) / r

Where:

FV = Future Value

P = Monthly investment amount

r = Monthly interest rate

n = Number of months

Given:

Monthly investment amount (P) = 49,000 VNĐ

Monthly interest rate (r) = 6.3% / 12 = 0.00525

Number of months (n) = 10 years * 12 months/year = 120 months

Plugging in these values, i can calculate the future value:

FV = 49,000 * ((1 + 0.00525)^120 - 1) / 0.00525

Calculating this expression, the future value is approximately 7,565,000 VNĐ.

Therefore, after 10 years of investing 49,000 VNĐ per month and earning an interest rate of 6.3% per year, you would have approximately 7,565,000 VNĐ.

Answer: 803.84cm3

Step-by-step explanation:
The formula for finding the volume of a cylinder is πr2h.
In other words, the area of the top face's circle times the height.

To find the circle's area, we first find the radius of the circle. Since the diameter is 8cm, we divide by 2 to get the radius, which is 4cm.

4cm squared is 4cm x 4cm, which is 16cm. 16cm times 3.14 is 50.24cm squared.

Now, we have the area of the circle. 50.24cm squared!

The height is 16cm, so to find the cylinder, we times the area of the circle by the height of the cylinder! So,

16cm x 50.24cm squared = 803.84cm cubed.

The volume of the can of soup is 803.84cm cubed.

The numerical value of x in angle ABD is 9 as angle ABC is divided into two equal halves.

An angle bisector divided an angle into two equal halves.

From the diagram:

Line BD divides angle ABC into two equal halves.

Angle ABD = ( 3x - 7 ) degrees

Angle DBC = 20 degrees

Since angle ABD and DBC are equal haves;

Angle ABD = Angle DBC

Plug in the values:

( 3x - 7 ) = 20

Solve for x:

3x - 7 = 20

Add 7 to both sides:

3x - 7 + 7 = 20 + 7

3x = 27

x = 27/3

x = 9

Therefore, the value of x is 9.

Option A)9 is the correct answer.

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The statement for the function of random variable "The density of Y can be found by differentiating the CDF of Y" is false.

The density of a random variable can be found by differentiating its CDF, but only if the random variable is continuous. The random variable X in this case is discrete, so its density cannot be found by differentiating its CDF.

The CDF of a discrete random variable is a step function, which means that it has a jump discontinuity at each point where the value of the random variable changes.

The derivative of a step function is a Dirac delta function, which is a mathematical object that represents a point mass at a specific value. The density of a discrete random variable is the sum of the Dirac delta functions at each point where the value of the random variable changes.

In this case, the CDF of Y is a step function, so its derivative is a Dirac delta function. The density of Y is the sum of the Dirac delta functions at each point where the value of Y changes. However, the value of Y can only change at integer values, so the density of Y is a discrete function, not a continuous function.

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The slope of AB is given by:(0 - (-1/2x - 5/2)) / (0 - x)= 1/2

Given that the slope of BC is -1/2. We need to find the slope of AB.

Slope of a line can be defined as the ratio of the change in y-coordinate to the change in x-coordinate between any two distinct points on the line.

Let us consider the coordinates of point B as (x, y)Coordinates of point C can be obtained by moving 3 units to the right from point B.

Therefore, coordinates of point C are (x+3, y+1).Since the slope of BC is -1/2, we can say that:(y+1 - y) / (x+3 - x) = -1/2y + 1 = -1/2(x + 3)y = -1/2x - 5/2Therefore, the coordinates of point B are (x, -1/2x - 5/2).

Point A lies on the x-axis. Therefore, its y-coordinate is zero. Therefore, the slope of AB is given by:(0 - (-1/2x - 5/2)) / (0 - x)= 1/2

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The other number is 4, 658

Algebraic expressions are described as expressions that are made up of terms, variables, constants and factors.

These algebraic expressions are also made up of arithmetic operations such as;

From the information given, we have that;

sum of 2 number is 34,678

If one of the number is x and the other is 30, 020

Then, we have that;

x + 30,020 =34, 678

collect the like terms, we have;

x = 34, 678 - 30, 020

x = 4, 658

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