I) Find the volume in terms of pie

ii) curved surface area in terms of pie

iii) capacity in litres (correct to nearest litre)

Answer:

385

Step-by-step explanation:

A company breaks even for a given period when sales revenue and costs incurred during that period are equal. Thus the break-even point is that level of operations at which a company realizes no net income or loss.

A company may express a break-even point in dollars of sales revenue or number of units produced or sold. No matter how a company expresses its break-even point, it is still the point of zero income or loss.

In order to grasp the concept of breakeven, it’s important to understand that all costs are not created equal: Some are fixed, and some are variable. Fixed Costs are expenses that are not dependent on the amount of goods or services produced by the business. They are things such as salaries or rents paid per month. If you own a car, then your car payment and insurance premiums are fixed costs because you pay them every month whether you drive your car or not. Variable Costs are volume related and are paid per quantity or unit produced. For your car, your variable costs are things like gas, maintenance, or tires because you only incur these costs when you drive your car. The more miles you drive, the more your gas expenses go up—such costs vary with the level of activity.

Before we turn to the calculation of the break-even point, it’s also important to understand contribution margin.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1 dollar = 30 cents tax + 70 cents net income

The ratio of taxes to net income:

Correct choice is D

If 30cents are out then net income=100-30=70

ratio:-

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow \dfrac{30}{70}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow \dfrac{3}{7}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow 3:7[/tex]

Answer:

AC:y=x-1  CB:y=-x-5 AB:x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the triangle. The base AB is on the line x=0, the vertex C is (-2,-3)

The side AC is equal to BC. The angle ACB is 90 degrees. If the base is on the line x=o, it is on the axis Y.Explore the distance from the point C to the AB

c(-2,-3), the distance to the axis Y is equal to the modul of the coordinate x (-2), it is 2. The coordinates of point projected by the point C to the axis Y is N(0,-3). The modul of the height is 2, the height of the isosceles triangle to the base is the bisectrix, so the angle BCA is 90/2=45degrees, CBA is 180-90-45=45 degrees too

the heigt CN is equal to side NB, NB=2

Suppose B is (0,y) (x=0 because the base is on this line)

THe modul of the vector NB is equal to sqrt ((0-0)^2+(y+3)^2)= 2

modul (y+3)= 2

y=-1 or y=-5

(0,-1), (0,-5) - two points, one of them (suppose B) is (0,-5) when A is (0,-1) (A is remote from the point N on the same distance with B, because AB is the median too)

Find CB and AC

Use the equation for AC

(x-0)/(-2-0)= (y+1)/(-3+1)

x/-2= (y+1)/-2

x=y+1

y=x-1

For CB

(x-0)/ (-2-0)= (y+5)/ (-3-(-5))

x/-2= (y+5)/2

-x=y+5

y=-x-5

Answer:

(cosB-1)(cosB+6)

Step-by-step explanation:

use u substitution . u = cosB

u^2+5u-6

factor

(u-1)(u+6)

put cosB back in for u

(cosB-1)(cosB+6)

Answer:

undersea trench

Step-by-step explanation:

Absolute value is the distance from zero

The highest mountain trench is |29028| or 29028 ft from zero

The lowest under sea trench is | -35840| of 35840 ft from zero

The highest absolute value is the undersea trench

Height always be positive .

Absolute value:-

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto |29028|=29028ft[/tex]

Absolute value:-

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto |-35840|=35840ft[/tex]

Answer:

1300 and 700 respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be invested in first account and y be invested in second account.

ATQ, x+y=2000 and 101=(4)*x/100+7*y/100. Solving it will give us x=1300 and y=700

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

plz gimme brainliest

i promise u its c

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

       There are two different ways we can solve this problem. We could use brute force, or we can use some equations to solve the problem. We can start by defining Pamela and Jiri's ages differently. If Jiri is j, and Pamela is p, we can say that p = j + 8, because Jiri + 8 years is Pamela's age.

       Now, using our values for Pamela and Jiri, we can say that (j + 8) + j = 102. Now we just solve like a normal equation, so 2j = 94, and j = 47, so Jiri is 47 years old.

Answer:

J = 47

Step-by-step explanation:

P = Pamela

J = Jiris

P = 8 + J ;- Equation 1

P + J = 102 ;- Equation 2

Substitute equation 1 into 2 to get:

J + 8 + J =102

2J = 102 - 8

2J = 94

J = 47

So Jiris is 47 years old

Answer:

Q. 2   (d)

Step-by-step explanation:

4/3 x + 4 2/3

2(2/3)(x) + 14/3

2(2/3)(x) + 7(2/3)

take (2/3) common

2/3 (2x + 7)

ANSWER!

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

35 is halve of 70 therefore it is 50%

hope it helps u...........

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Explanation:

Any equilateral triangle has all three angles of 60 degrees each. Splitting the triangle in half like this produces two identical copies of 30-60-90 triangles.

Any 30-60-90 triangle will have its hypotenuse twice as long compared to the short leg. The short leg here is 5 (it's opposite the smallest angle), so that doubles to 2*5 = 10 which is the value of x.

Note: the other side of this right triangle is 5*sqrt(3).

Answer:

x=10

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ Δ IS Equilateral.

∴ sides are equal.

perpendicular from vertex bisects it.

x=2×5=10

Answer:

a.. rs 7000

Because 15×1000=15000 it is SP when selling 1000units in the rate of Rs 15/unit& 8×1000=8000 this is cp when buying 1000 units in the rate of Rs 8/unit.

So,by formula of profit,

Rs (15000-8000)=Rs7000

Perimeter = Sum of all sides

Perimeter = 14cm + 8cm + 10cm + 5cm

Perimeter = 22cm + 15cm

Perimeter = 37cm

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps you

...

........

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

14 = 1000 [tex]e^{ k*1}[/tex]

.014 = [tex]e^{k*1}[/tex]

ln(.014) = k ln(e)

k = -4.268

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

after 3 hrs

1000 [tex]e^{ -4.268*3}[/tex]

0.00274

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

4 = 1000 [tex]e^{ -4.268*t}[/tex]

.004 =  [tex]e^{ -4.268*t}[/tex]

ln(.004)/-4.268 = t

t = 1.29368 hrs

Answer:

The sequence has first term 7 and common difference is 8.

So the sequence is f(n)=7 + 8(n-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let a be the first term.

Let a+d be the second term where d is the common difference.

Then a+2d is the third....

And a+(n-1)d is the nth term.

Adding these terms we get:

an+(n-1)(n)/2×d

For the first term of this sum I seen we had n amount of a's and for the second term I used the well known identity sum of the first n positive integers is n(n+1)/2.

Let's simplify:

an+(n-1)(n)/2×d

Distribute:

an+(n^2d/2)-(nd/2)

Find common denominator:

(2an/2)+(n^2d/2)-(nd/2)

Combine terms into one:

(2an+n^2d-nd)/2

Reorder terms:

(n^2d+2an-nd)/2

Regroup terms:

(n^2d+(2a-d)n)/2

We want the following sum though:

4n^2+3n

This means d/2=4 (so d=8) and (2a-d)/2=3.

So plug d=8 into second equation to solve for a.

(2a-8)/2=3

2a-8=6

2a=14

a=7

The sequence has first term 7 and common difference is 8.

So the sequence is f(n)=7 + 8(n-1).

Answer:

Total Distance = 20km = 20 × 1000 = 20,000 m

Distance walked = 800m

Distance travelled by cycle = 20,000 - 800 = 19,200m

Percentage of journey by cycle = (distance travelled by cycle ÷ total distance) × 100

Percentage of journey by cycle = (19200 / 20000) * 100

Percentage of journey by cycle = 96%

The probability of not getting red is 7/10

The area of mathematics known as probability deals with numerical representations of the likelihood that an event will occur or that a statement is true. An event's probability is a number between 0 and 1, where, roughly speaking, 0 denotes the event's impossibility and 1 denotes certainty.

Given

Your bowl has 20 chips. (4+10+6).

6 of them are red. 6/20 = 3/10

so the odds of getting a red chip are 3/10 ,

meaning the odds against getting red are 1-(3/10) = 7/10

To learn more about probability refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/13604758

#SPJ2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

insert values of x and y

r - ( -4(-4) - ( -3-3))

r - ( 16 +6 )

r - 22

Doneeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee3

Answer:

what is the sum.

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the sum - 11 =x

Answer:

116 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We can solve this by first writing an equation for the cost of the car rental. To begin, the base cost is $17.95, so any further costs must be added to that. Next, the car costs 19 cents (0.19 dollars) for each mile driven, so for each mile, we add 19 cents. This can be written as 0.19 *x if x represents the amount of miles driven. Therefore, we can add the two input costs of the car (the base cost and cost per mile) to get

17.95 + 0.19 * x = total cost.

After that, we want to maximize x/the number of miles with only 40 dollars. We can do this by setting this equal to the total cost, as going over the total cost is impossible and going under would be limiting the amount of miles (this because we are adding money for each mile, so more money means more miles). Therefore, we have

17.95 + 0.19 * x = 40

subtract 17.95 from both sides to isolate the x and its coefficient

22.05 = 0.19 * x

divide both sides by 0.19 to isolate x

22.05/0.19 = x = 116.05

The question asked us to round down, and 116.05 rounded down is 116 for our answer

Answer:

Converting into metre (1m=100cm)= 5/100=0.05m.. Converting into km. (1km=100000cm). so 5 cm=5/100000=0.00005km.

Answer:

5cm in meters = 0.05 metre

5cm in kilometres = 0.00005km

Answer:

slope is undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

(9, 1 ) and (9, - 4 )

Since the x- coordinates of the 2 points are 9, then the line is vertical and parallel to the y- axis with slope being undefined.

Slope is the change in y over the change in x.

Slope = (-4 - 1) / (9 -9) = -5/0 you cannot divide by 0,so the slope is undefined. This means it is a vertical line

To solve this question, the real rate of return formula is used, and we apply the data given in the exercise into the formula to find the real rate of return.

Formula for the real rate of return:

[tex]R = \frac{1 + N}{1 + i} - 1[/tex]

In which N is the nomial rate and i is the inflation rate, as decimals.

A certificate of deposit offers a nominal interest rate of 2.5 percent annually.

This means that [tex]N = 0.025[/tex]

Inflation is 1 percent

This means that [tex]i = 0.01[/tex]

What is the real rate of return:

Now we apply the formula:

[tex]R = \frac{1 + 0.025}{1 + 0.01} - 1[/tex]

[tex]R = 1.0149 - 1[/tex]

[tex]R = 0.0149[/tex]

0.0149*100% = 1.49%

Thus, the real rate of return is of 1.49%.

For another example of a similar problem, you can check https://brainly.com/question/20164190

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  a) no

  b) yes

  c) yes

  d) no

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle LJM is complementary to KJL, so is ...

  angle LJM = 90° -42° = 48°

Angle NJP is marked as congruent to angle PJQ, so is also 48°.

__

a) ∠KJL = 42° ≠ 48° = ∠LJM . . . . NO

b) ∠MJP = 46°+48° = 48° +46° = ∠PJR . . . . YES

c) ∠LJP = 48° +46° +48° = 48° +48° +46° = ∠NJR . . . . YES

d) ∠MJK = 90° ≠ 48° +46° = ∠PJR . . . . NO

Answer:0.8

Step-by-step explanation: