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Answer:

$3.45 per pound of turkey.

Step-by-step explanation:

$7.59 for 2.2[0] pounds of turkey

x = 1 pound of turkey.

Divide 7.59 ÷ 2.20

$3.45 is your answer.

You could also use a ratio table, but with lots of trial and error!

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

the ans is 3.45$... good luck

Since f(x) is (strictly) increasing, we know that it is one-to-one and has an inverse f^(-1)(x). Then we can apply the inverse function theorem. Suppose f(a) = b and a = f^(-1)(b). By definition of inverse function, we have

f^(-1)(f(x)) = x

Differentiating with the chain rule gives

(f^(-1))'(f(x)) f'(x) = 1

so that

(f^(-1))'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)

Let x = a; then

(f^(-1))'(f(a)) = 1/f'(a)

(f^(-1))'(b) = 1/f'(a)

In particular, we take a = 2 and b = 7; then

(f^(-1))'(7) = 1/f'(2) = 1/5

The function f(x) is an increasing function about which little else is known about other than f(2)=7 and f'(2)=5. Then the value of (f⁻¹)'(7) is 1/5

To find (f⁻¹)'(7), we can use the inverse function theorem. The formula for the derivative of the inverse function is given by:

[tex](f^{-1})'(y) = \frac{1}{f'(x)},[/tex]

where y = f(x). Since we know that f(2) = 7 and f'(2) = 5, we have x = 2 and y = 7. Substituting these values into the formula:

[tex](f^{-1})'(7) = \frac{1}{f'(2)} = \frac{1}{5}.[/tex]

Therefore,

[tex](f^{-1})'(7) = \frac{1}{5}.[/tex]

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Answer:

About $437.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the table which gives the annual premium per $1000; the premium paid annually by the 40 year old male is $437.23

The total annual premium = $75000

Using the data in the table :

Annual premium per $1000 of coverage for a 40-year old male with a 10 - years life insurance policy = $5.83

The annual premium for $75,000 ;

Premium per $1000 × ($75000/$1000)

Annual premium = $5.83 × ($75,000/1000)

Annual premium = $5.83 × 75 = $437.25

Hence, the annual premium for the lifetime insurance based on the stated conditions is $437.25

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

in the picture

what the holligram

i dont know

Answer:

The two lines are neither parallel nor perpendicular to one another.

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope [tex]m[/tex] gives the orientation of a line.

Make sure that the equation of both lines are in the slope-intercept form [tex]y = m\, x + b[/tex] (where [tex]m\![/tex] is the slope and [tex]b[/tex] is the [tex]y[/tex]-intercept) before comparing their slopes.

The equation of the first line [tex]y = 3\, x - 5[/tex] is already in the slope-intercept form. Compare this equation with the standard [tex]y = m\, x + b[/tex]. The slope of this line would be [tex]m = 3[/tex].

Rewrite the equation of the second line [tex]9\, x + 3\, y = 1[/tex] to obtain the slope-intercept equation of that line:

[tex]3\, y = -9\, x + 1[/tex].

[tex]\displaystyle y = -3\, x + \frac{1}{3}[/tex].

Thus, the slope of this line would be [tex]m = (-3)[/tex].

Two lines are parallel to one another if and only if their slopes are equal. In this question, [tex]3 \ne (-3)[/tex]. Thus, the two lines are not parallel to one another.

On the other hand, two lines are perpendicular to one another if and only if the product of their slopes is [tex](-1)[/tex]. In this question, [tex]3\times (-3) = (-9)[/tex], which is not [tex](-1)\![/tex]. Thus, these two lines are not perpendicular to one another, either.

Answer:

2 11/12 Square feet

Step-by-step explanation:

What we do is convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions

2 x 2 + 1 = 5

1 x 6 + 1 = 7

our new fractions are 5/2 and 7/6

find the least common denominators LDC

new fractions 15/6 and 7/6

multiply 15/6 x 7/6= 35/12

simplify into mixed number =  2 11/12

Answer:

24+31i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

f(x) = (x - 3)²- 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the graph of f(x), where it has the same shape as the graph of g(x) = x², but is shifted right by 3 units, and down by 2 units.

The horizontal translation of the parent graph parabola, g(x) = x²,  is represented by y = (x - h)², where the graph shifts by h units to the right, such that h > 0.  

The vertical translation of the parent graph is represented by y = f(x - h)² - k, where the graph is vertically translated by |k | units downward, such that k < 0.

Therefore, the equation that represents the vertical and horizontal translations of the graph is: f(x) = (x - 3)²- 2.

If there's no built-in function for csc⁻¹, you can use the identity

csc⁻¹(x) = sin⁻¹(1/x)

which works because if we replace x = csc(y), for instance, we end up with

csc⁻¹(csc(y)) = sin⁻¹(1/csc(y))

and over an appropriate interval, the left side reduces to y, while 1/csc(y) = sin(y) so that the right side also reduces to sin⁻¹(sin(y)) = y.

Answer:

it is c - y = sin -1 (1/x)

Step-by-step explanation:

EDGE whatever the year

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The true answer is 12 divided by four bu the closest I can see is the last one

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use vector addition

d = √(15² + 30²) = √1125 = 33.54...≈ 34 m

Step-by-step explanation:

Can You Explain In Brief?

Answer:

where are the statements

please check it

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, it is going upwards from left to right so we know it'll be positive. Then we do the following:

[tex]\frac{rise}{run}=\frac{change.in.y}{change.in.x}=\frac{y_{2} -y_{1}}{x_{2} -x_{1}}=\frac{0--1}{2-0}=\frac{0+1}{2-0}=\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

("." in the second fraction is for separate words)

So the slope is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Hope this helps, have a nice day! :D

Answer:

hope this helps

check the picture attached for steps

Answer:

b = -50/7

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The formula to find y-intercept (b) given two points is [tex]b = y_1 - m * x_1[/tex], but let's first find the slope using [tex]\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex].

2. Now that we have the slope, let's use the formula for finding the y-intercept.

Therefore, the y-intercept is -50/7.

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

16/x = 80/100

16/x because 16 is your part and you are trying to find your whole (x)

80 is your part and 100 is your whole (this is from percent)

Cross multiply:

1600 = 80x

1600/80 = x

x = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

16×100÷80

=20

THE TOTAL IS 20

Answer:

6 machines

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the time needed for 1 machine to complete the job, so rate of one machine is (rate is the reciprocal of time)

[tex] \frac{1}{x} [/tex]

rate of 4 machines would be

[tex]1 \: job = 12 \times \frac{4}{x} = \frac{48}{x} \\ 1 \: macine \: takes \: 48 \: days[/tex]

[tex] \frac{48 \: days \: per \: machine}{8 \: days} = 6 \: machines[/tex]

Answer:

80.00

Step-by-step explanation:

His Bags weighs 80.00 in Ounces

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

the first time the rate was half the baskets, so the second time staying at the same rate it would be half the baskets again, which is 24.

To factor an expression is to rewrite the expression in a factored form

The factored expression of 15ab + 24bc is 3b(5a + 8c)

The expression is given as:

15ab + 24bc

Factor out b from the expression

15ab + 24bc = b(15a + 24c)

Factor out 3 from the expression

15ab + 24bc = 3b(5a + 8c)

The expression can no longer be factorized.

Hence, the factored expression of 15ab + 24bc is 3b(5a + 8c)

Read more about factorization at:

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The appropriate statistic to use in the analysis is that of repeated measures.

Repeated measures is a term for a way of collecting, analyzing, and evaluating statistics that involve multiple measures of the same variable or Subject.

According to the above, repeated measures are the appropriate statistic for the analysis of the blood pressure rate during three specific moments.

Note: This question is incomplete because the options are missing. Here are the options.

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The tangential speed of the tip of this hour hand is 0.143 mm/s.

The tangential speed v = rω where r = length of hour hand = 8.2 cm = 0.082 m and ω = angular speed = 2π/T where T = period of hour hand = 60 min = 60 min × 60 s/min = 3600 s.

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

v = rω

v = r2π/T

v = 0.082 m × 2π/3600 s

v = 0.164π/3600 m/s

v = 0.5152/3600 m/s

v = 0.000143 m/s

v = 0.143 mm/s

So, the tangential speed of the tip of this hour hand is 0.143 mm/s.

Learn more about tangential speed here:

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Answer:

0.00001 m/s, 1 X 10^-4 m/s, 0.000012 m/s, or 1.2 X 10^-5 m/s

–––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––

Step-by-step explanation:

12 • 60 = 720

720 • 60 = 43,200

8.2 / (43200•24) = ~0.00001 m/s

Answer:

Rs.5500 is the correct answer .

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{(x+2)}{(x+2)(x-17)}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{x+2}{x(x-17)+2(x-17)}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{x+2}{x^2-17x+2x-34}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{x+2}{x^2-15x-34}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 6=\dfrac{x+2}{x^2-15x-34}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 6(x^2-15x-34)-x-2=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 6x^2-90x-204-x-2=0[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 6x^2-91x-206=0[/tex]

Done

_________

[tex]\:[/tex]

Answer in the picture.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To complete the steps to demonstrate why you multiply by the reciprocal when dividing fractions.

To find

Step 1:

Rewrite it as

.

Step 2:

Multiply the numerator and the denominator by the reciprocal of

.