Calculate the magnitude and direction of the current in this circuit.

Please help, I’ll like

Answer:

For some reason it doesn't let me type it in here so the answer is in the comment box!

I hope this will help you!:)

Answer:

second is the SI unit of time

Answer:

Friction

Explanation:

friction is the force that tries to slow things down when two things are rubbed together.

Answer:

That is friction don't know

Explanation:

how I know that

Answer:

All of the above is the answer

Answer:

I don't even know can u tell me how to ask questions

Explanation:

click the link you can get answer of the question

Answer:

is ur question right

Explanation:

is ur question right

check the pictures(2 pictures)check the pictures(2 pictures)check the pictures(2 pictures)

The vector sum of the two forces is 20  and the magnitude of the resultant is 20 towards positive x-axis.

A vector is a quantity or phenomena with magnitude and direction that are independent of one another. The phrase also refers to a quantity's mathematical or geometrical representation.

If no vector can be written as a linear combination of the others, a set of vectors is said to be linearly independent.

The vector representation for the forces F and F are:

[tex]\rm \vec F_1 = 20 COS 60^0 \vec i + 20 SIN 60^0 \vec j\\\\ F_1 =20 \times \frac{1}{2} \vec i+20 \times \frac{\sqrt{3} }{2} \vec j \\\\ \vec F_1 = 10 \vec i+ 10 \sqrt{3} \vec J[/tex]

[tex]\rm F_2 = 20 cos 60^0 \vec i+20 sin(-60) \vec j \\\\ F_2 = 20 \times \frac{1}{2} \times \vec i+20 \times \frac{\sqrt{3} }{2} \vec j \\\\ \vec F_2 = 10 \vec I -10\sqrt{3} \vec J[/tex]

The vector sum of the two forces are;

[tex]\rm \vec R = \vec F_1+\vec F_2\\\\ \vec R = 10 \vec i+ 10 \sqrt{3} \vec J+10 \vec i-10\sqrt{3} \vec J\\\\ \vec R =20 i[/tex]

To learn more about the vector refer to the link;

https://brainly.com/question/13322477

#SPJ2

Answer:  B  –4.29 V

Explanation:

I just took the quiz and I got a hundred percent make sure you pick B!!

Answer:

Explanation:

you need the number of seconds to calculate the distance. I'm assuming that the seconds were written in the question but you forgot to write the here, you can calculate the distance then and find the exact point where the cyclist stopped since you have the circumference. then you can find the angle (after finding the distance he cycled) by subtracting it from 360 since the circular path will have an angle of 360 degrees.

Although your question lacks some data A general answer is provided :

The angle made vertically  = 360° - x°

where x = angle at which the the cyclist stopped

and circumference of the circular path = Total Distance travelled by the cyclist

First step : determine the distance travelled by the cyclist vertically

circumference = 2*π*r

343 = 2*π * r

∴ r = 343 / ( 2π ) = 54.59

therefore distance travelled by the cyclist vertically = 54.59 * 2 = 109.18 m

Given that the time travelled is missing

assuming the angle to the distance travelled by the cyclist before it stopped vertically = 360° - x°  

This is because the Total angle of a circular path = 360°

Learn more about circular paths : https://brainly.com/question/24210487

Answer:

Actually the formulae is S=(u+v/2)t

.TO explain,from average velocity=distance /time

and average velocity is u+v/2

hence using the formular

Average velocity=distance/time

distance will be=average velocity ×time

so S=(u+v/2)t

Answer:

Explanation:

law of flotation

or

pascal's law

Answer:

Here, we have

Initial velocity, u = 0 m/s (As starts from rest)

Acceleration, a = 2 m/s².

Time taken, t= 310 min = 310 × 60 = 18600 seconds

To Find,

Final velocity, v and,

Distance covered, s

Formula to be used,

1st and 3rd equation of motion,

v = u + at and v² - u² = 2as

So, putting all the values, we get

V = u + at

v = 0 + 2 x 18600

v = 2 x 18600 → v = 37200 m/s.

Hence, the final velocity is 37200 m/s.

Now, Distance covered,

v² - u²= 2as

(37200 )² - (0)² = 2 x 2 x s

1,383,840,000 = 4s → s = 345,960,000m

Hence, the distance covered is 345,960,000 m.

The "second" is the base unit of time in both systems.

Answer:

because hydroelectricity is generate from water and it is considered as a perpetual resources and produce the large capacity of electricity which helps in the indicator of development

Explanation:

The density of silver is 10.5g/cm3

=2500.0g/10.5g/cm3

=238.09cm3

238.1cm3 to nearest tenth.

I hope my answer helps. Please mark as brainliest.

Explanation:

The magnetic needle of a compass lines up with Earth's magnetic poles.

Answer:

Explanation:

                    The right side of your heart receives oxygen-poor blood from your veins and pumps it to your lungs, where it picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide. The left side of your heart receives oxygen-rich blood from your lungs and pumps it through your arteries to the rest of your body.

        #I AM ILLITERATE

The answer to the digits rounded to one significant figure is 100.

Significant figures are the most important figures in a number of digits.

The closer a digit is to the beginning of a number, the more important  or significant  it is.

But, the rule for rounding up a set of numbers to the first significant or to one significant figure is that:

From the numbers 98.907, 9 is the most significant digit followed by 8.

8 is greater than 5 so we should round up by adding one to 9 making the number 100.

learn more here:

https://brainly.com/question/11566364

Explanation:

The three importance of measurement are as follows :-

Hope it is helpful to you

✌️✌️✌️✌️✌️✌️✌️

The distance, to the nearest tenth, is 314.9 light-years.

The given data is:

A recently discovered planet is located 1.85*10^5 miles from Earth.

Now we want to transform this distance to light-years.

Remember that a light-year is defined as "the distance that the light would travel in one year".

using the relation:

distance = speed*time

The speed of light is:

speed = 6.706*10^8 mi/h

And in one year has 8760 hours, then we have:

time = 8760 h

replacing these in the equation we get:

distance = speed*time

distance = (6.706*10^8 mi/h)*(8760 h)  = 5,874,456,000,000 miles

Son one light-year is equivalent to 5,874,456,000,000 miles

1 light-year = 5,874,456,000,000 miles

So to transform a distance in miles to light-years, we just need to divide that distance by 5,874,456,000,000 miles:

The distance between the new planet and Earth was:

D = 1.85*10^15 mi = ( 1.85*10^15)/(5,874,456,000,000) = 314.9 light-years.

if you want to learn more about this, you can read:

https://brainly.com/question/1302132

Answer:

The most thick paper can support maximum weight.

Explanation:

A paper is defined as a thin sheet of material that is prepared chemically or mechanically processing of the cellulose fibers which are derived from the grasses, wood, bamboos, trees or rags.

In the context, there are three different but identical sheets of paper that are arranged in different ways. Weights are placed over the papers. Now the most thick paper of the three provided will support most of the weight.

Paper thickness or paper weights are measured in GSM. GSM stands for grams per square meter. The thicker paper will have higher GSM.  

Answer:5

Explanation:

Let F₁ and F₂ denote the two forces, and R the resultant force.

F₁ and F₂ point perpendicularly to one another, so their dot product is

F₁ • F₂ = 0

We're given that one of these vectors, say F₁, makes an angle with R of 30°, so that

F₁ • R = ||F₁|| ||R|| cos(30°)

But we also have

F₁ • R = F₁ • (F₁ + F₂) = (F₁ • F₁) + (F₁ • F₂) = F₁ • F₁ = ||F₁||²

So, knowing that ||R|| = 100 N, we get that

(100 N) ||F₁|| cos(30°) = ||F₁||²

(100 N) cos(30°) = ||F₁||

||F₁|| ≈ 86.6 N

(And the same would be true for F₂.)

Convert to m/s

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto 72\times \dfrac{5}{18}=5(4)=20m/s[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Acceleration=\dfrac{v-u}{t}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Acceleration=\dfrac{0-20}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Acceleration=\dfrac{-20}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Acceleration=a=-10m/s^2[/tex]

Using second equation of kinematics

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto s=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}at^2[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto s=20(2)+\dfrac{1}{2}(-10)(2)^2[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto s=40+(-20)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto s=40-20[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto s=20m[/tex]

Now

Using newtons second law

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Force=ma[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Force=5000(-10)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Force=-50000N[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto Force=50kN[/tex]

Answer . The acceleration of the truck is 10m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex], and the distance covered is 40 m. Have attached the picture for solution.

Hope that helps.

The change in the frequency of the sound, due to the relative motion of the source of sound and the observer, is determined by the Doppler's Effect.

The speed of the ambulance (source) is "6517 m/s"

The equation of Doppler's Effect is given as follows:

[tex]f_o = \frac{v+v_o}{v+v_s}f_s[/tex]

where,

[tex]f_o\\[/tex] = frequency of sound measure by observer  = 100 Hz

v = speed of sound = 343 m/s

[tex]v_o[/tex] = speed of observer = 0 m/s

[tex]v_s[/tex] = speed of ambulance (source) = ?

[tex]f_s[/tex] = actual frequency = 2000 Hz

Therefore, using the values, we get:

[tex]100\ Hz = \frac{343\ m/s + 0\ m/s}{343\ m/s + v_s}(2000\ Hz)\\\\(100\ Hz)(343\ m/s + v_s) = (343\ m/s)(2000\ Hz)\\\\v_s = \frac{686000\ Hz.m/s - 34300\ Hz.m/s}{100\ Hz}[/tex]

v_s = 6517 m/s

Learn more about Doppler's Effect here:

https://brainly.com/question/1330077?referrer=searchResults

Flourine is an element which has 9 electrons. The first energy level can only hold upto 2 electrons so therefore two electrons of the fluorine element will be in the first orbital.

In the second orbital there will be seven electrons. The configuration will be as 1s2, 2s2 , 2p5 .

The first orbital has capacity of two electrons and then the remaining two electrons will be in higher second energy level.

The further 5 electrons will be in lower second energy level which is denoted by p.

Learn more at https://brainly.com/question/24373325

Answer:

#1. 5

#2.They have valence electrons in the same energy level.

#3. Helium atoms have 2 valence electrons, while atoms of the other elements in the group all have 8 valence electrons.

#4. cesium (Cs)

#5.  There are two electrons in the first energy level and seven electrons in the second energy level.

Explanation:

Answer:

light reflects off the objects and enter our eyes

Answer:

Option B

The correct answer is 2

Answer:

helloooooo

look slope is

delta y / delta x

y2 - y1 / x2 - x1

look at the figure i attached i took any random 2 points and drew line till the x and y axes as it is straight line slope is constant we can take any 2 points

so as per points i took

( 8-4 ) / ( 2-4 )

4/-2 = -2

so slope is -2 which is constant throughout

brainliest pweaseeee