A spherical, concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 0.983 m. What is the magnification of a person's face when it is 0.155 m from the vertex of the mirror (answer sign and magnitude)

Answer:

Sources:

-- https://intblog.onspot.com/en-us/why-do-bridges-become-icy-before-roads

and

-- https://www.accuweather.com/en/accuweather-ready/why-bridges-freeze-before-roads/687262

I hope this helps you! ^^

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for angular velocity is

[tex]\omega=\frac{\theta}{t}[/tex] where omega is the angular velocity, theta is the change in the angular rotation, and t is the time in seconds. First and foremost, we have the angular rotation in minutes and the time in seconds, so that's a problem we have to amend. Let's change the angular rotation to rotations per second:

[tex]281.133\frac{r}{min}*\frac{1min}{60s}=4.68555\frac{r}{s}[/tex]

Now we're ready to set up the problem:

[tex]4.68555=\frac{\theta}{3.686}[/tex] and we multiply both sides by 3.686 to get the rotations per seconds:

θ = 17.27 rotations

Answer:

the distance moved by the puck after 2.5 s is 7.8 m

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the puck, m = 2 kg

initial velocity of the puck, u = 0

applied force, F = 5 N

time of motion, t = 1.5 s

Acceleration of the puck is calculated from Newton's second law of motion;

F = ma

a = F/m

a = 5/2

a = 2.5 m/s²

The distance moved by the puck after 2.5 s is calculated as;

s = ut + ¹/₂at

s = 0 + ¹/₂at²

s = ¹/₂at²

s = 0.5 x 2.5 x (2.5)²

s = 7.8 m

Therefore, the distance moved by the puck after 2.5 s is 7.8 m

Answer:

the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire segment is 6.03 x 10⁻⁶ N

Explanation:

Given;

length of the conductor, L = 1 cm = 0.01 m

current carried by the solenoid, I₁ = 15 A

radius of the solenoid, r = 4 cm

number of turns per length of the solenoid, n = 800 turns/m

current carried by the solenoid, I₂ = 40 mA = 0.04 A

The magnetic field of the solenoid is calculated as;

B = μnI₂

where;

μ is the permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ Tm/A

B = ( 4π x 10⁻⁷) x (800) x (0.04)

B = 4.022 x 10⁻⁵ T

The magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire segment is calculated as;

F = BI₁L sinθ

where

θ is the angle made by the wire segment against the solenoid = 90⁰

F = (4.022 x 10⁻⁵) x (15) x (0.01) x sin(90)

F = 6.03 x 10⁻⁶ N

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire segment is 6.03 x 10⁻⁶ N

Answer:

Abby is standing (4.5^2 + 2.3^2)^1/2   from the far speaker

D2 = 5.05 m from the far speaker

The difference in distances from the speakers is

5.05 - 4.5 = .55 m     (Let y be wavelength, lambda)

n y = 4.5

(n + 1) y = 5.05 for the speakers to be in phase at smallest wavelength

y = .55 m          subtracting equations

f = v / y = 340 / .55 = 618 / sec     should be the smallest frequency

Answer:

If a neutral atom gains electrons, then it will become negatively charged. If a neutral atom loses electrons, then it become positively charged.

Answer:

speed is the gradient of the graph

Answer:

Speed is the slope of a distance time graph.

Explanation:

Speed= d/t

Slope is equal to rise/run

If the rise of the graph is the distance and the run is the time, calculating slope is the equivalent of calculating average speed.

(1) When the driver is at rest, the restoring force exerted by spring is equal in magnitude to the driver's weight, so that

∑ F = s - mg = 0   ==>   s = mg = 617.4 N

If the spring is compressed 0.015 m, then the spring constant k is such that

617.4 N = k (0.015 m)   ==>   k = 41,160 N/m ≈ 41 kN/m

(2) The total mass of the passengers is

24 (68 kg) + 3 (15 kg) + 5 (3 kg) + 25 kg = 1717 kg

so that if everyone is at rest, the spring is compressed a distance x such that

kx = (1717 kg) g   ==>   x ≈ 0.41 m

Answer:

(a) emf = 0.507 V

(b) emf = 0.0507 V

(c) emf = 0.00234 V

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns of the coil, N = 40 turns

diameter of the coil, d = 11 cm

radius of the coil, r = 5.5 cm = 0.055 m

magnitude of the magnetic field, B = 0.4 T

The magnitude of the induced emf is calculated as;

[tex]emf = - N\frac{d\phi}{dt} \\\\where;\\\\\phi \ is \ magnetic \ flux= BA \\\\A \ is the \ area \ of \ the \ coil = \pi r^2 = \pi (0.055)^2 = 0.0095 \ m^2\\\\emf = - N \frac{dB.A}{dt} = -NA\frac{dB}{dt} \\\\emf = -NA\frac{(B_2 - B_1)}{t} \\\\emf = NA \frac{(B_1 - B_2)}{t} \\\\the \ final \ magnetic \ field \ is \ reduced \ to \ zero;\ B_2 = 0\\\\emf = \frac{NAB_1}{t}[/tex]

(a) when the time, t = 0.3 s

[tex]emf = \frac{NAB_1}{t} = \frac{40\times 0.0095\times 0.4}{0.3} = 0.507 \ V[/tex]

(b) when the time, t = 3.0 s

[tex]emf = \frac{NAB_1}{t} = \frac{40\times 0.0095\times 0.4}{3} = 0.0507 \ V[/tex]

(c) when the time, t = 65 s

[tex]emf = \frac{NAB_1}{t} = \frac{40\times 0.0095\times 0.4}{65} = 0.00234 \ V[/tex]

Answer:

40 because if it is the same weight then there is no weight to make the ride slower so it 40

Explanation:

The intensity of the electromagnetic wave in terms of the electric field is 0.00298 W/m² and the intensity of the electromagnetic wave in terms of the magnetic field is 1.193x10⁻⁶  W/m².

The intensity of the electromagnetic wave is related to the electric field as well as to the magnetic field.    

a) Intensity of the electromagnetic wave for the electromagnetic field.

The intensity of the electromagnetic wave (I) in terms of the electromagnetic field is given by:

[tex] I = \frac{E^{2}*c*\epsilon_{0}}{2} [/tex]   (1)

Where:

c: is the speed of light = 3.00*10⁸ m/s  

E: is the magnitude of the electric field = 1.5 V/m

ε₀: is the permittivity of free space = 8.85*10⁻¹² C²/Nm²

Hence, the intensity of the electromagnetic wave (eq 1) is:

[tex] I = \frac{(1.5 V/m)^{2}*3.00 \cdot 10^{8} m/s*8.85 \cdot 10^{-12} C^{2}/(N*m^{2})}{2} = 0.00298 W/m^{2} [/tex]                                                                                          

b) Intensity of the electromagnetic wave for the magnetic field

We can calculate the intensity of the electromagnetic wave (I) in terms of the magnetic field with the following equation:

[tex] I = \frac{cB^{2}}{2\mu_{0}} [/tex]   (2)

Where:

B: is the magnitude of the magnetic field = 10⁻¹⁰ T

μ₀: is the vacuum permeability = 4π*10⁻⁷ m*T/A

Therefore, the intensity of the electromagnetic wave (eq 2) is:

[tex] I = \frac{3.00 \cdot 10^{8} m/s*(1\cdot 10^{-10} m*T/A)^{2}}{2*4\pi \cdot 10^{-7} T/A} = 1.193 \cdot 10^{-6} W/m^{2} [/tex]

Learn more about electromagnetic waves and magnetic and electric fields here: https://brainly.com/question/11647801?referrer=searchResults                                          

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

 law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant; it is said to be conserved over time.

Answer:

EMF = 51.01 Volt

Explanation:

A 50-turn coil has a diameter of 15 cm. The coil is placed in a spatially uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.500~\text{T}0.500 T so that the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30^\circ30 ​∘ ​​ with the magnetic field. Find the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil if the magnetic field is reduced to zero uniformly in 0.100~\text{s}0.100 s

We have,

Number of turn in the coil, N = 50

The diameter of the coil, d = 15 cm

Radius, r = 7.5 cm = 0.075 m

Initial magnetic field, [tex]B_i=0.5\ T[/tex]

The plane of the coil makes an angle of 30° with the magnetic field.

The magnetic field reduced to zero in 0.1 seconds

We need to find the emf induced in the coil. We know that, emf is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux. So,

[tex]\epsilon=\dfrac{BNA\cos\theta}{t}\\\\\epsilon=\dfrac{0.5\times 50\times \pi \times 0.075\cos(30)}{0.1}\\\\\epsilon=51.01\ V[/tex]

So, the induced emf in the coil is 51.01 V.

Answer:

if you want to drop into the water at the greatest possible distance from the edge, you must hang for 1.662s.

Explanation:

The time period of the oscillation is,

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{ \frac{I} {g }[/tex]

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{11}{9.8} } \\\\T= 6.65 s[/tex]

This would be the time taken for the person to move from.

The duration of time he hangs over the river be one-fourth of the time period.

Here,

[tex]t= \frac{T}{4} \\\\t=\frac{6.65}{4}\\\\t = 1.662 s[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]F=133N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Length [tex]l=3.0m[/tex]

Mass [tex]m=24kg[/tex]

Distance from Tip [tex]d=35cm[/tex]

Generally, the equation for Torque Balance is mathematically given by

[tex]mg(l/2)=F(l-d)[/tex]

[tex]2*9.81(3/2)=F(3-35*10^-2)[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]F=133N[/tex]

Answer:

Can't understand the language

Answer:

the distance of the fish (as  seen by the bird) is greater than the actual distance.

Reason-

it is due to the apparent depth and differences between the refractive indices.

Have a nice day!

Answer:

X = 10.8387 cm²/s

Explanation:

In this exercise, you're required to convert a value from one unit to another.

Converting 42 ft²/hr to cm²/s;

Conversion:

1 ft² = 929.03 cm²

42 ft² = X cm²

Cross-multiplying, we have;

X = 42 * 929.03

X = 39019.26 cm²

Next, we would divide by time in seconds.

1 hour = 3600 seconds

X = 39019.26/3600

X = 10.8387 cm²/s

Answer:

Alpha particles are more massive than beta particles.

Explanation:

The alpha particles are also called double-positive Heilum Nuclei because they have a charge of "+2" and a mass of 4 a.m.u. The properties of the alpha particles are as follows:

1. It possesses high energy due to high velocity. It is 7.7 MeV for most energetic from Rac (i.e: Bismuth-214)

2. It has a very high ionizing power. A 7.7 MeV particle produces about 0.2 x 10⁶ ions.

3. The range of alpha particles is very small. It is about 7 x 10⁻² m and only 4 x 10⁻⁵ m in aluminum for 7.7 MeV alpha-particle.

4. Alpha particles produce fluorescence on striking certain substances, such as zinc sulphide and bariumplatinocynide.

The beta particles are fast-moving electrons, which have a negligible mass.  

Hence, the correct option is:

Alpha particles are more massive than beta particles.

Answer:

the charge of the particle is 2.47 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the particle, m = 6.64 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

velocity of the particle, v = 8.7 x 10⁵ m/s

strength of the magnetic field, B = 1.3 T

radius of the circle, r = 18 mm = 1.8 x 10⁻³ m

The magnetic force experienced by the charge is calculated as;

F = ma = qvB

where;

q is the charge of the particle

a is the acceleration of the charge in the circular path

[tex]a = \frac{v^2}{r} \\\\ma = qvB\\\\q = \frac{ma}{vB} \\\\q = \frac{mv^2}{rvB} = \frac{mv}{rB} \\\\q = \frac{(6.64\times 10^{-27} ) \times (8.7\times 10^5)}{(1.8\times 10^{-2}) \times (1.3)} \\\\q = 2.47 \ \times 10^{-19} \ C[/tex]

Therefore, the charge of the particle is 2.47 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

Solution :

We know,

Distance,

[tex]$S=ut+\frac{1}{2}at^2$[/tex]

[tex]$S=ut+0.5(a)(t)^2$[/tex]

For the first 20 ms,

[tex]$S=0+0.5(220)(0.020)^2$[/tex]

S = 0.044 m

In the remaining 30 ms, it has constant velocity.

[tex]$v=u+at$[/tex]

[tex]$v=0+(220)(0.020)[/tex]

v = 4.4 m/s

Therefore,

[tex]$S=ut+0.5(a)(t)^2$[/tex]

[tex]$S'=4.4 \times 0.030[/tex]

S' = 0.132 m

So, the required distance is = S + S'

                                              = 0.044 + 0.132

                                              = 0.176 m

Therefore, the tongue can reach = 0.176 m or 17.6 cm

Answer:

The total distance is 0.176 m.

Explanation:

For t = 0 s to t = 20 ms

initial velocity, u = 0

acceleration, a = 220 m/s^2

time, t = 20 ms

Let the final speed is v.

Use first equation of motion

v = u + at

v = 0 + 220 x 0.02 = 4.4 m/s

Let the distance is s.

Use second equation of motion

[tex]s = u t + 0.5 at^2\\\\s = 0 + 0.5 \times 220 \times 0.02\times 0.02\\\\s = 0.044 m[/tex]

Now the distance is

s' = v x t

s' = 4.4 x 0.03 = 0.132 m

The total distance is

S = s + s' = 0.044 + 0.132 = 0.176 m

Answer:

Modern technology is the advancement of old technology with adjustments.

1. Ghana is still developing economically and modern  infrastructure is not yet well established.

2. Ghana has Environmental- health concerns which contribute to the lack of improvement of technology in Ghana.

3.  Youth unemployment is prevalent therefore contributing to lack of improvement of technology in Ghana.

Explanation:

Ghana is a developing country with rising debt payments which could very well contribute as whole to the lack of improvement of technology in Ghana.

Answer:

The elastic energy is 245 J.

Explanation:

Length, L = 5 m

Diameter, D = 10^-3 m

Stretch, l = 3 x 10^-4 m

Load, F = 10 x 9.8 = 98 N

Let the elastic energy is U.

[tex]U = \frac{1}{2}\times stress\times strain\times volume\\\\U = 0.5\times \frac{Force}{area}\times \frac{l}{L}\times Area\times L\\\\U = 0.5 \times F\times l\\\\U = 0.5\times 98\times 5\\\\U = 245 J[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\theta=30 \textdegree[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Current [tex]I=2.0A[/tex]

Length [tex]L=0.60m[/tex]

Magnetic field [tex]B=0.30T[/tex]

Force [tex]F=0.18N[/tex]

Generally the equation for Force is mathematically given by

[tex]F = BIL sin\theta[/tex]

[tex]sin\theta=\frac{F}{BIL}[/tex]

[tex]\theta=sin^{-1}\frac{0.18}{0.3*2*0.6}[/tex]

[tex]\theta=30 \textdegree[/tex]

Answer:

181 is the answer I think so

Answer:

If decreased blood pressure is detected, the adrenal gland is stimulated by these stretch receptors to release aldosterone, which increases sodium reabsorption from the urine, sweat, and the gut. This causes increased osmolarity in the extracellular fluid, which will eventually return blood pressure toward normal.

Answer:

Various uses of water :

1. Water is used for daily purpose like cooking , bathing , cleaning and drinking.

2. Water used as a universal solvent.

3. water maintains the temperature of our body.

4. Water helps in digestion in our body.

5 .water is used in factories and industries.

6. Water is used to grow plants , vegetables and crops.

Answer:

N/C = V/m.

Explanation:

The SI unit of electric field is N/C. Sometimes the units are written as V/m.

We know that,

1 V = 1 J/C

Using dimensional analysis,

The dimensional formula for Joules is [M¹L² T⁻²].

The dimensional form of coulomb is [M⁰ L⁰ T¹ I¹].

So,

J/C = [M¹L² T⁻³I¹] ...(1)

The dimensional formula of Newton is [M¹ L¹ T⁻²]

The dimensional form of coulomb is [M⁰ L⁰ T¹ I¹].

N/C= [M¹L² T⁻³I¹] ....(2)

From (1) and (2) it is clear that the N/C is equal to V/m.

Answer:

the tendency of electron dipole moments to align with an applied magnetic field

Explanation:

Paramagnetism has to do with possession of unpaired electrons. Substances that possess unpaired electrons are said to be paramagnetic.

When an external magnetic field is applied to a paramagnetic substance, the magnetic field causes the electrons spins of the paramagnetic substance to align parallel to the field,which leads to a net attraction.

Hence, paramagnetism is closely associated with the tendency of electron dipole moments to align with an applied magnetic field.